AACE International Planning & Scheduling Professional (PSP) AACE-PSP Dumps in PDF

Free AACE International AACE-PSP Real Questions (page: 3)

A driving relationship is _____________________.

  1. A critical relationship.
  2. A finish-to-start relationship.
  3. The link between two related activities.
  4. The link between a predecessor and the activity whose dates it controls.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A driving relationship is the dependency link where the predecessor activity directly governs the dates of the successor activity.
Option A confuses "driving" with critical path relationships.
Option B oversimplifies by focusing on one type of relationship.
Option C is vague and does not specify the control aspect.
The driving relationship determines schedule flow and is essential for maintaining logical dependencies in CPM scheduling.



If someone wanted to constrain a project's end date so that any project slippage would cause negative float, they would do so by using

  1. Finish-no-earlier constraint on the first activity
  2. Finish-no-earlier constraint on the last activity
  3. Finish-no-later constraint on the last activity
  4. Start-no-later constraint on the first activity

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

To constrain a project's end date, a Finish-No-Later constraint is applied to the last activity. This ensures any slippage results in negative float, signaling delays relative to the fixed deadline.
Option A and B apply to earlier constraints, which are not relevant for controlling the project's end date.
Option D applies a constraint to the first activity, not the project finish.
This concept aligns with controlling project deadlines as described in the PSP Study Guide.



An early start constraint dictates

  1. An activity's remaining duration.
  2. The planned start of a successor activity
  3. The planned start of an activity.
  4. The actual start of an activity.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Early Start Constraint:
An early start constraint specifies the earliest date on which an activity can begin, aligning with project constraints or milestones.
It is a planning input and does not dictate actual or remaining durations.
PSP Study Guide Reference:
Scheduling constraints, including early start, are critical for establishing realistic schedules and milestones.
Conclusion: The correct answer is C, as an early start constraint refers to the planned start date of an activity.



Constraints control events or activities that __________________.

  1. Affect only the forward pass.
  2. Are not based on project relationships.
  3. Affect only the backward pass.
  4. May be over-ridden by activity logic.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Role of Constraints:
Constraints impose specific conditions on schedule events or activities, such as fixed start dates or imposed milestones.
These are external to the natural logic relationships established in a network (e.g., predecessor-successor relationships).
PSP Study Guide Reference:
The guide describes constraints as independent factors that override logic-based sequencing when necessary.
Analysis of Options:
Option A and C: Constraints impact both forward and backward passes, not exclusively one.
Option D: Constraints supersede activity logic rather than being overruled by it.
Conclusion: The correct answer is B, as constraints operate independently of project logic relationships.



Which of the following is NOT required when performing weekly or monthly schedule updates?

  1. Percent complete.
  2. Remaining duration of activities.
  3. Actual finish of activities.
  4. Original duration of activities.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Update Process Essentials:
Schedule updates track the current status of the project using actuals (start/finish dates), progress (percent complete), and future plans (remaining duration).
The original duration does not change and is part of baseline data, not required for routine updates.
PSP Study Guide Reference:
Scheduling update procedures are discussed, emphasizing active progress tracking elements like actual start, percent complete, and remaining duration.
Conclusion: The correct answer is D, as original duration is not a variable considered in regular updates.



Which of the following will always describe the critical path? The path with

  1. The longest duration through the network.
  2. Zero float.
  3. Negative float.
  4. The shortest duration and negative float.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

A
Critical Path Characteristics:
The critical path is the sequence of activities that determines the overall project duration.
It represents the longest duration path through the network and typically has zero float unless delays or constraints introduce negative float.
PSP Study Guide Reference:
Critical path analysis is a foundational concept in schedule management, as covered extensively in the PSP guide.
Analysis of Options:
Option A: Correct. The critical path always has the longest duration.
Option B: Zero float is common but not universal due to constraints or delays.
Option C and D: Negative float describes specific scenarios but does not define the critical path universally.
Conclusion: The correct answer is A, as the critical path is the longest-duration path through the network.



Of the following update procedures, which is the least important in achieving an accurate forecast for completion of a construction schedule?

  1. Estimating remaining durations of activities.
  2. The correct recording of actual start dates.
  3. Making "downstream" logic revisions as required.
  4. Entering the time impacts of delays and change orders.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Schedule Update Procedures:
Accurate schedule updates rely on entering actual data (start/finish dates, durations) and evaluating impacts of changes.
"Downstream" logic revisions may be needed but are less critical compared to ensuring accurate historical data and reflecting immediate changes.
PSP Study Guide Reference:
Schedule updating emphasizes capturing accurate historical data and estimating remaining durations accurately.
Analysis of Options:
Option A and B: Key to progress tracking and forecasting.
Option D: Essential for reflecting impacts of delays and change orders.
Option C: While important, downstream logic revisions are less immediate compared to other procedures.
Conclusion: The correct answer is C, as downstream logic revisions are less critical in achieving an accurate schedule forecast compared to other updates



What method would be the best way to determine the most likely as-built critical path of a project that is underway, and the schedule of which has been partially progressed?

  1. Use the progressed portion of the critical path of all the updates previous to the current update.
  2. Use the progressed portion of the critical path of the baseline schedule.
  3. Interview the project personnel for their perceptions and opinions because the schedule is usually inadequate.
  4. Use the forward-looking critical path of the most current updates.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Understanding As-Built Critical Path Analysis:
Determining the as-built critical path of a project involves identifying the sequence of activities that actually dictated the completion of the project. This is especially important in projects that are underway, as schedules often deviate from the original baseline due to progress updates and unplanned changes.
Explanation of Each Option:
A) Use the progressed portion of the critical path of all the updates previous to the current update: This is correct. To determine the most likely as-built critical path, analyzing the progressed portion of the critical path from all previous updates provides the most accurate representation of the project’s actual execution. By reviewing the progression over time, you can piece together the actual sequence of critical activities.
B) Use the progressed portion of the critical path of the baseline schedule: This is incorrect. The baseline schedule reflects the original plan, which may no longer be accurate due to progress deviations, delays, or changes in logic. Using the baseline alone does not account for the dynamic nature of the project.
C) Interview the project personnel for their perceptions and opinions because the schedule is usually inadequate: This is incorrect.
While project personnel may provide insights, relying solely on subjective opinions introduces biases and inconsistencies. A properly maintained and updated schedule is far more reliable for determining the critical path.
D) Use the forward-looking critical path of the most current updates: This is incorrect. The forward-looking critical path only reflects what is expected to happen from the current point onward. It does not provide an accurate representation of the as-built critical path up to the current point.

Study Guide Reference:
The PSP Study Guide emphasizes the importance of analyzing progress updates to trace the actual sequence of critical activities. Section 2.3.2 (Tracking Schedule Progress) discusses the role of historical updates in understanding project performance.
The guide also highlights that a proper as-built analysis requires a review of all updates to identify shifts in the critical path over time.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

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V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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