CRISC Exam Questions and Answers | Exam-Dumps (Page: 7)

QUESTION: 31

Which of the following is true for Cost Performance Index (CPI)?

If the CPI > 1, it indicates better than expected performance of project
CPI = Earned Value (EV) * Actual Cost (AC)
It is used to measure performance of schedule
If the CPI = 1, it indicates poor performance of project

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies of project. It is used in trend analysis to predict future performance. CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost.
If the CPI value is greater than 1, it indicates better than expected performance, whereas if the value is less than 1, it shows poor performance.

Incorrect Answers:
B: CPI is the ratio of earned value to actual cost, i.e., CPI = Earned Value (EV) / Actual Cost (AC).

C: Cost performance index (CPI) is used to calculate performance efficiencies of project and not its schedule. D: The CPI value of 1 indicates that the project is right on target.

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QUESTION: 32

Which of the following do NOT indirect information?

Information about the propriety of cutoff
Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations.
Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins.
The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels of goods.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Information about the propriety of cutoff is a kind of direct information. Incorrect Answers:
B: Reports that show orders that were rejected for credit limitations provide indirect information that credit checking aspects of the system are working as intended.

C: Reports that provide information about any unusual deviations and individual product margins (whereby, the price of an item sold is compared to its standard cost) provide indirect information that controls over billing and pricing are operating.

D: The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels provides indirect information that its billing controls are operating.

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QUESTION: 33

Ben works as a project manager for the MJH Project. In this project, Ben is preparing to identify stakeholders so he can communicate project requirements, status, and risks. Ben has elected to use a salience model as part of his stakeholder identification process. Which of the following activities best describes a salience model?

Describing classes of stakeholders based on their power (ability to impose their will), urgency (need for immediate attention), and legitimacy (their involvement is appropriate).
Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority ("power") and their level or concern ("interest") regarding the project outcomes.
Influence/impact grid, grouping the stakeholders based on their active involvement ("influence") in the project and their ability to affect changes to the project's planning or execution ("impact").
Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority ("power") and their active involvement ("influence") in the project.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A salience model defines and charts stakeholders' power, urgency, and legitimacy in the project.

The salience model is a technique for categorizing stakeholders according to their importance. The various difficulties faced by the project managers are as follows:
How to choose the right stakeholders?

How to prioritize competing claims of the stakeholders communication needs?

Stakeholder salience is determined by the evaluation of their power, legitimacy and urgency in the organization.
Power is defined as the ability of the stakeholder to impose their will. Urgency is the need for immediate action.
Legitimacy shows the stakeholders participation is appropriate or not.
The model allows the project manager to decide the relative salience of a particular stakeholder. Incorrect Answers:
B: This defines the power/interest grid. C: This defines an influence/impact grid. D: This defines a power/influence grid.

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QUESTION: 34

Which of the following is the first MOST step in the risk assessment process?

Identification of assets
Identification of threats
Identification of threat sources
Identification of vulnerabilities

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Asset identification is the most crucial and first step in the risk assessment process. Risk identification, assessment and evaluation (analysis) should always be clearly aligned to assets. Assets can be people, processes, infrastructure, information or applications.

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QUESTION: 35

Which of the following matrices is used to specify risk thresholds?

Risk indicator matrix
Impact matrix
Risk scenario matrix
Probability matrix

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Risk indicators are metrics used to indicate risk thresholds, i.e., it gives indication when a risk level is approaching a high or unacceptable level of risk. The main objective of a risk indicator is to ensure tracking and reporting mechanisms that alert staff about the potential risks.

Incorrect Answers:
B, D: Estimation of risk's consequence and priority for awareness is conducted by using probability and impact matrix. These matrices specify the mixture of probability and impact that directs to rating the risks as low, moderate, or high priority.

C: A risk scenario is a description of an event that can lay an impact on business, when and if it would occur.

Some examples of risk scenario are of: Having a major hardware failure
Failed disaster recovery planning (DRP) Major software failure

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ISACA CRISC Exam (page: 7) ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Updated on: 25-Dec-2025

QUESTION: 31

Explanation:

QUESTION: 32

Explanation:

QUESTION: 33

Explanation:

QUESTION: 34

Explanation:

QUESTION: 35

Explanation:

ISACA CRISC Exam (page: 7)
ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Updated on: 25-Dec-2025