USMLE Step2 STEP2 Dumps in PDF

Free USMLE STEP2 Real Questions (page: 3)

A46-year-old attorney is noted to have normal cholesterol levels but a very high fasting triglyceride level of 1600. He is otherwise healthy and has no risk factors for CAD. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. Hypertriglyceridemia is a strong independent risk factor for premature CAD.
  2. Dietary modification is usually sufficient.
  3. High triglyceride levels are associated with elevated high-density lipoprotein (HDL) levels.
  4. Hypertriglyceridemia is usually associated with skin lesions.
  5. Control of triglyceride levels can prevent attacks of acute pancreatitis in patients with extreme hypertriglyceridemia.

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

Hypertriglyceridemia has not been shown to be a strong independent risk factor for CAD, however, epidemiologic data do suggest a relationship. According to the National Cholesterol Education Program, when tirglycerides are above 200 mg/dL then non-HDL (total HDL) cholesterol becomes a pharmacologic treatment target. Severely elevated triglycerides (1000 mg/dL) are a recognized risk factor for attacks of acute pancreatitis, and control of the triglycerides can prevent these attacks. Diet alone is usually not sufficient at these high levels. A National Institutes of Health Consensus Conference has recommended that treatment be initiated in all patients with triglycerides greater than 500 mg/ 100 mL to prevent acute pancreatitis. Skin lesions are not present with hypertriglyceridemia.



A 60-year-old patient with long-standing diabetes has a creatinine of 3.6, which has been stable for several years. Which of the following antibiotics requires the most dosage modification in chronic renal failure?

  1. tetracycline
  2. gentamicin
  3. erythromycin
  4. nafcillin
  5. chloramphenicol

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Many drugs require dosage modifications in chronic renal insufficiency. Bioavailability, distribution, action, and elimination of drugs all may be altered. Drugs that are nephrotoxic may be contraindicated or used only with extreme care in renal insufficiency. The aminoglycosides, vancomycin, ampicillin, most cephalosporins, methicillin, penicillin G, sulfonamides, and trimethoprim all should be given in reduced dosage to patients with chronic renal failure. The aminoglycosides and vancomycin can be nephrotoxic and should be used with caution in renal insufficiency. The small group of antibiotics not needing dosage modification includes chloramphenicol, erythromycin, the isoxazolyl penicillins (nafcillin and oxacillin), and moxifloxacin.



A 57-year-old man is on maintenance hemodialysis for chronic renal failure. Which of the following metabolic derangements can be anticipated?

  1. hypercalcemia
  2. hypophosphatemia
  3. osteomalacia
  4. vitamin D excess
  5. hypoparathyroidism

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Chronic renal failure treated with hemodialysis results in predictable metabolic abnormalities. The kidneys fail to excrete phosphate, leading to hyperphosphatemia, and fail to synthesize 1,25(OH)2D3. Vitamin D deficiency causes impaired intestinal calcium absorption. Phosphate retention, defective intestinal absorption, and skeletal resistance to parathyroid hormone (PTH) all result in hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia causes secondary hyperparathyroidism, and the excess PTH production worsens the hyperphosphatemia by increasing phosphorus release from bone. These derangements impair collagen synthesis and maturation, resulting in skeletal abnormalities collectively referred to as renal osteodystrophy.
Osteomalacia, osteosclerosis, and osteitis fibrosa cystica may all be seen.



A 25-year-old man was admitted to the intensive care unit with a severe head injury, with fracture of the base of the skull. Approximately 18 hours after the injury, he developed polyuria. Urine osmolality was 150 mOsm/L and serum osmolality was 350 mOsm/L. IV fluids were stopped, and 3 hours later, urine output and urine osmolality remained unchanged. Five units of vasopressin were intravenously administered. Urine osmolality increased to 300 mOsm/L. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. central diabetes insipidus
  2. nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
  3. water intoxication
  4. solute overload
  5. syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Diabetes insipidus, a deficiency of pituitary antidiuretic hormone (ADH) (arginine vasopressin), causes water loss because of failure to facilitate reabsorption of water in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of the kidneys. In central diabetes insipidus, there is impaired production of vasopressin, and in nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, the distal renal tubules are refractory to vasopressin. In central diabetes insipidus, urine osmolality remains unchanged. If water intoxication were present, stopping IV fluids should have increased urine osmolality. With solute overload, serum osmolality would have been higher. In SIADH, urine osmolality is usually higher than serum osmolality.



A70-year-old man with a 60 pack-year smoking history presents with cough and weight loss. He describes recent diffuse darkening of his skin and his CXR shows a mass suspicious for lung cancer in the left hilum. His laboratory tests reveal hypokalemia. Which of the following is the most likely histology of his lung cancer?

  1. adenocarcinoma
  2. small cell
  3. squamous cell
  4. mesothelioma
  5. glioblastoma

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Endocrine syndromes are seen in 12% of patients with lung cancer. Squamous cell carcinoma is associated with PTH-related peptide. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) and ADH secretion can be associated with small cell lung carcinoma. ACTH-secreting tumors are associated with darkening of the skin and hypokalemia.



Share your comments for USMLE STEP2 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

V
vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

i need to pass exam for VMware 2V0-11.25

M
Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

O
OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

great dumps to practice for the exam

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!