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USMLE Step2 STEP2 Exam Questions in PDF

Free USMLE STEP2 Dumps Questions (page: 12)

STEP2 PDF — 738 Questions

For each antihypertensive agent listed below, select the set of undesirable side effects with which it is most commonly associated with hydrochlorothiazide

  1. cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema
  2. positive Coombs test, hemolytic anemia, hepatitis
  3. hypokalemia, hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia
  4. peripheral edema, flushing, and constipation
  5. increased angina, tachycardia, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

All of the drugs used to treat hypertension can cause adverse reactions, ranging from trivial to life threatening. Thiazide diuretics are associated with hypokalemia, causing arrhythmias; hyperuricemia causing gout; and hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance. The vasodilator hydralazine can cause tachycardia with increased angina and a lupuslike syndrome. As many as 10% of patients on angiotensin- converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors develop an annoying dry cough. Because they block aldosterone, they can lead to hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors cause 1025% of all cases of angioedema. Peripheral edema is the most commonly reported side effect of calcium channel blockers, especially amlodipine and nifedipine.
Constipation, flushing, and dizziness are also frequently reported. Coombs'-positive hemolytic anemia and hepatitis are idiosyncratic reactions to the central adrenergic-stimulant methyldopa.



For each antihypertensive agent listed below, select the set of undesirable side effects with which it is most commonly associated with hydralazine

  1. cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema
  2. positive Coombs test, hemolytic anemia, hepatitis
  3. hypokalemia, hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia
  4. peripheral edema, flushing, and constipation
  5. increased angina, tachycardia, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

All of the drugs used to treat hypertension can cause adverse reactions, ranging from trivial to life threatening. Thiazide diuretics are associated with hypokalemia, causing arrhythmias; hyperuricemia causing gout; and hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance. The vasodilator hydralazine can cause tachycardia with increased angina and a lupuslike syndrome. As many as 10% of patients on angiotensin- converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors develop an annoying dry cough. Because they block aldosterone, they can lead to hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors cause 1025% of all cases of angioedema. Peripheral edema is the most commonly reported side effect of calcium channel blockers, especially amlodipine and nifedipine.
Constipation, flushing, and dizziness are also frequently reported. Coombs'-positive hemolytic anemia and hepatitis are idiosyncratic reactions to the central adrenergic-stimulant methyldopa.



For each antihypertensive agent listed below, select the set of undesirable side effects with which it is most commonly associated with lisinopril

  1. cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema
  2. positive Coombs test, hemolytic anemia, hepatitis
  3. hypokalemia, hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia
  4. peripheral edema, flushing, and constipation
  5. increased angina, tachycardia, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

All of the drugs used to treat hypertension can cause adverse reactions, ranging from trivial to life threatening. Thiazide diuretics are associated with hypokalemia, causing arrhythmias; hyperuricemia causing gout; and hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance. The vasodilator hydralazine can cause tachycardia with increased angina and a lupuslike syndrome. As many as 10% of patients on angiotensin- converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors develop an annoying dry cough. Because they block aldosterone, they can lead to hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors cause 1025% of all cases of angioedema. Peripheral edema is the most commonly reported side effect of calcium channel blockers, especially amlodipine and nifedipine.
Constipation, flushing, and dizziness are also frequently reported. Coombs'-positive hemolytic anemia and hepatitis are idiosyncratic reactions to the central adrenergic-stimulant methyldopa.



For each antihypertensive agent listed below, select the set of undesirable side effects with which it is most commonly associated with amlodipine

  1. cough, hyperkalemia, angioedema
  2. positive Coombs test, hemolytic anemia, hepatitis
  3. hypokalemia, hyperuricemia, hyperglycemia
  4. peripheral edema, flushing, and constipation
  5. increased angina, tachycardia, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

All of the drugs used to treat hypertension can cause adverse reactions, ranging from trivial to life threatening. Thiazide diuretics are associated with hypokalemia, causing arrhythmias; hyperuricemia causing gout; and hyperglycemia due to insulin resistance. The vasodilator hydralazine can cause tachycardia with increased angina and a lupuslike syndrome. As many as 10% of patients on angiotensin- converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors develop an annoying dry cough. Because they block aldosterone, they can lead to hyperkalemia. ACE inhibitors cause 1025% of all cases of angioedema. Peripheral edema is the most commonly reported side effect of calcium channel blockers, especially amlodipine and nifedipine.
Constipation, flushing, and dizziness are also frequently reported. Coombs'-positive hemolytic anemia and hepatitis are idiosyncratic reactions to the central adrenergic-stimulant methyldopa.



A34-year-old male presents to your clinic with an acute upper respiratory infection (URI). He has a nonproductive cough and no fever. This patient is immunocompetent and has no underlying heart or lung disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

  1. 7 days of a macrolide antibiotic
  2. 7 days of a quinolone antibiotic
  3. 5 days of a macrolide antibiotic
  4. 5 days of a quinolone antibiotic
  5. rest and fluids

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

Antibiotics have no role in the treatment of uncomplicated nonspecific URI. In the absence of clinical evidence of bacterial infection, treatment remains entirely symptom-based with use of decongestants and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. Other therapies directed at specific symptoms are often useful, including dextromethorphan for cough and lozenges with topical anesthetic for sore throat. Clinical trials of zinc, vitamin C, echinacea, and other alternative remedies have revealed no consistent benefit for the treatment of nonspecific



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
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