Which of the following vessels participate in the arterial circulation of the spleen?
Answer(s): E
The spleen receives its blood supply from the splenic artery, which branches off from the celiac trunk from the abdominal aorta. At the hilum of the spleen, the splenic artery branches off into trabecular arteries, which enter the spleen along the trabeculae and branch in the parenchyma as central arteries running in the white pulp. The central arteries branch into penicillar arterioles, which give rise to capillaries and sheathed arterioles. The capillaries feed the marginal sinuses as well as the red pulp sinuses. Afferent (choice A) and efferent (choice B) arterioles, and interlobar (choice C) and interlobular (choice D) arteries are vessels found in the kidney.
A middle-aged, markedly obese male patient presents to the emergency room with pain in the inguinal region. Examination reveals an abnormal bulge which increases in size when the patient performs the Valsava maneuver. The bulge can be reduced manually when the patient is lying supine. However, as soon as the patient stands up and coughs, the bulge reappears. The patient is diagnosed with an inguinal hernia. The chief resident in surgery asks for a determination of whether the hernia is direct or indirect. Which of the following is a useful landmark to distinguish an indirect from a direct inguinal hernia?
Answer(s): B
The inferior epigastric vessels lie medial to the deep inguinal ring. An indirect inguinal hernia leaves the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring and is thus always localized lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. Adirect inguinal hernia results from weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal and pushes through the conjoint tendon to reach the superficial inguinal ring. The direct inguinal hernia is thus always located medial to the inferior epigastric vessels. The anterior superior iliac spine (choice A) and pubic tubercle (choice D) are respectively located too far laterally or medially to be of use in distinguishing indirect from direct hernias. The inguinal ligament (choice C) is used to istinguish a femoral hernia which is always located inferior to this structure. The umbilicus (choice E) is the site for an umbilical hernia and not inguinal hernias.
A fourth-year medical student is learning to place a central line. To prepare for this procedure, she reviews X-rays and CT scans in order to gain a proper three-dimensional relationship of the structures involved. In following figure what is the structure pointed to by arrow 1?
Arrow 1 points to the superior vena cava. The central venous catheter is inserted into the subclavian vein and threaded into the superior vena cava. The ascending aorta (choice A) is labeled by arrow 4 and its counterpart, the descending aorta (choice C) by arrow 5. The azygos vein (choice B) is indicated by arrow1. Arrow 2 indicates the right bronchus (choice D) just as it leaves the carina.
Referring to following figure what is the most likely source of this epithelium?
The appearance of this epithelium reveals it to be transitional epithelium. It is stratified with a scalloped surface outline. The cells at the bottom layer are cuboidal in appearance and stained darkly; cells in the intermediate layer are polygonal. Cells at the surface of the epithelium are pale-stained, rounded, and large. Transitional epithelium is characteristic of organs of the urinary system, such as the urinary bladder.The gall bladder (choice A) is characterized by simple columnar epithelium. The epithelium of the salivary gland (choice B) is simple cuboidal epithelium. Thick skin (choice C) is made up of stratified squamous epithelium and the trachea (choice D) is lined with pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
Afailure of the truncoconal septum to follow a spiral course results in which of the following conditions?
Transposition of the great vessels occurs when the truncoconal ridges fail to spiral as they divide the outflow tract into two channels. This produces two totally independent circulatory loops with the right ventricle feeding into the aorta and the left ventricle feeding into the pulmonary artery. Common atrium (choice A) results from a complete failure of the septum primum and septum secundum to form. Persistent atrioventricular canal (choice B) results from a failure of the endocardial cushions to fuse and partition the atrioventricular canal into a right and left component. It is accompanied by defects of the atrial and ventricular septa. Persistent truncus arteriosus (choice C) results from a total failure of the truncoconal ridges to develop and partition the outflow tract of the developing heart. Tetralogy of Fallot (choice D) is a related group of defects with the primary malformation being an unequal division of the outflow tract, resulting in pulmonary stenosis. The other eatures of tetralogy are an interventricular septal defect, an overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. Survival of the infant depends on the maintenance of a patent ductus arteriosus.
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q.119 - the correct answer is b - they are not captured in an update set as theyre data.
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this question is keep repeat : you are developing a sales application that will contain several azure cloud services and handle different components of a transaction. different cloud services will process customer orders, billing, payment, inventory, and shipping. you need to recommend a solution to enable the cloud services to asynchronously communicate transaction information by using xml messages. what should you include in the recommendation?
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q50: which two functions can be used by an end user when pivoting an interactive report? the correct answer is a, c because we do not have rank in the function pivoting you can check in the apex app
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in question 272 the right answer states that an autonomous acces point is "configured and managed by the wlc" but this is not what i have learned in my ccna course. is this a mistake? i understand that lightweight aps are managed by wlc while autonomous work as standalones on the wlan.
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thank you for providing me with the updated question and answers. this version has all the questions from the exam. i just saw them in my exam this morning. i passed my exam today.
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question 75: option c is correct answer
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has anyone recently attended safe 6.0 certification? is it the samq question from here.
expository experience
52 should be b&c. controller failure has nothing to do with this type of issue. degraded state tells us its a raid issue, and if the os is missing then the bootable device isnt found. the only other consideration could be data loss but thats somewhat broad whereas b&c show understanding of the specific issues the question is asking about.