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Scrum Professional Master II PSM II Dumps in PDF

Free Scrum PSM II Real Questions (page: 18)

PSM II PDF — 221 Questions

Individual Development Team members have been approaching Steven, the Scrum Master, to complain about Chris. Chris has the most experience on the system they are building. He often questions the choices team members make in design and architecture making them feel bad.
What are two good ways for Steven to address this problem? (Choose two.)

  1. Steven observes whether this topic is raised at the Sprint Retrospective. If not, then he checks with the team on how comfortable they are with the way the design and architecture is being handled.
  2. Steven suggests facilitating a session with the full team to help resolve the issue.
  3. Steven tells the concerned members that Chris’ opinions should be respected as he has the most experience and understands what is best for long term sustainability.
  4. Steven shares his concerns with Chris and the impact on the other team members and that he should be a team player.
  5. Steven takes the time between Sprints to organize a team building session to build a stronger relationship.

Answer(s): A,B

Explanation:

Conflicts are a natural occurrence and the Scrum Master coaches the Development Team on the value of resolving conflicts. Leaving conflicts unresolved can impact the Scrum values of openness and respect diminishing trust. Lower trust levels will impact the Scrum Team’s effectiveness and can cause impediments in the future. It is the responsibility of the Scrum Master to remove impediments that hinder the team through conflict resolution and facilitation.



By the end of the Sprint, a Product Backlog item in the Sprint Backlog does not meet the team’s Definition of Done. What two things should happen with the item? (Choose two.)

  1. It will be inspected at the Sprint Review and if it is acceptable by the stakeholders then include it in the Increment.
  2. Do not include the item in the Increment for the Sprint.
  3. Split the item and add the estimation of the completed work to the current Sprint so not to impact the velocity and add the ‘undone’ work to the next Sprint.
  4. Estimate the remaining work needed to make it ‘done’ and add it to the Product Backlog for the Product Owner to decide what to do with it.

Answer(s): B,D

Explanation:

At the end of a Sprint, the new Increment must be ‘Done’, which means it must be in useable condition and meet the Scrum Team’s definition of ‘Done’. Scrum Team members must have a shared understanding of what it means for work to be complete, to ensure transparency. This is the Definition ofDone for the Scrum Team and it is used to assess when work is complete on the product Increment.



You have been hired as a Scrum Master for a company that has been doing business for over fifty years. In order to stay competitive, they have started an initiative to digitize their legacy systems. The company has several Scrum Teams working on different components that will be integrated to a single back office platform.

Your team is responsible for building the back office platform and integrating all other components. The Scrum Teams work in two week Sprints and are expected to deliver all functionality in six Sprints.
During development the requirement changes in the other components have been slowing down your team’s progress. Because of these changes, your team has estimated that they will not be able to deliver all expected work within the original timeframe. The Scrum Teams working on the other components confirm that they are still on track to meet the expected delivery date. The program manager in charge of the digitization initiative is upset and angry with your team.

As a Scrum Master, what could you do to help the Product Owner?

  1. You suggest working with the program manager and the other teams on the ordering and the value of your team’s open Product Backlog items to redefine the possible delivery date.
  2. You shorten your team’s Sprints to be ready sooner.
  3. You remove all items from the Product Backlog for which development is forecasted to be beyond the expected date. These are likely to be low value anyhow.
  4. You suggest adding additional developers to the team in order to increase velocity and meet the original date.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The Scrum Master serves the Product Owner in several ways, including: Finding techniques for effective Product Backlog management;
Helping the Scrum Team understand the need for clear and concise Product Backlog items; Understanding product planning in an empirical environment;
Ensuring the Product Owner knows how to arrange the Product Backlog to maximize value.



Steven is a Scrum Master for three different teams building a single product from the same Product Backlog. Development Team members from each team have approached Steven complaining that their teams need Nicole, an external specialist, to commit full time for their next Sprint.
Which three acceptable solutions would Steven consider? (Choose three.)

  1. For Sprints that require Nicole’s expertise for more than one team, combine the teams into one and separate when they no longer need to share her services.
  2. Investigate whether applying additional techniques or frameworks for scaling Scrum would be appropriate for this product team in the future, since you have multiple Scrum Teams working on the same product, with dependencies between the teams.
  3. People from the Development Teams with an interest in Nicole’s domain could volunteer to take on this work in their respective teams.
  4. Ask Nicole for a plan to hire and train additional people in her domain, and in the meantime work with the Product Owner and Development Teams to re-prioritize the work so that tasks not depending on Nicole can be done first.
  5. Have the Development Team re-order the Product Backlog so Nicole can serve one team full-time in a Sprint.
  6. Create a team with Nicole and people from the teams to temporarily work in Nicole’s domain to serve the existing teams.

Answer(s): B,C,E

Explanation:

The Scrum Master is responsible for removing impediments within the current context of the situation AND boundaries defined by the Scrum framework.



At the fifth Sprint Retrospective, the Product Owner mentions that he is surprised about the amount of technical debt that has built up in the system and that the product is not able to support an adequate number of users. Peter, the Product Owner, is upset that the product will need several more Sprints to address the scalability issues in order to meet his expectations.
What factors may have led to this?

  1. The Scrum Team has not used the past Sprint Retrospectives effectively to inspect and adapt.
  2. The Development Team has not been paying enough attention to technical quality.
  3. The Development Team and the Product Owner are not having conversations around technical debt.
  4. The Scrum Master has not ensured that the Scrum Team is transparent.
  5. All of the above.
  6. None of the above.

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

Each component within the Scrum framework serves a specific purpose and is essential to Scrum’s success and usage. Scrum’s roles, events,artifacts, and rules are immutable and although implementing only parts of Scrum is possible, the result is not Scrum.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
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