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Scaled Agile SAFe Advanced Scrum Master SAFe-SASM Dumps in PDF

Free Scaled Agile SAFe-SASM Real Questions (page: 6)

SAFe-SASM PDF — 60 Questions

Which two Framework elements would a Scrum Master have the strongest connection and most frequent interaction? (Choose two.)

  1. Business Owners
  2. Release Train Engineer
  3. Systems Team
  4. Product Owner
  5. Epic Owner

Answer(s): B,D

Explanation:

Release Train Engineer (RTE):
Role: The RTE is a servant leader and coach for the Agile Release Train (ART). They facilitate ART events and processes, assist teams in delivering value, and help manage risks and dependencies.
Interaction with Scrum Master:
Scrum Masters frequently collaborate with the RTE to coordinate cross-team activities and dependencies.
They work together during events like PI Planning, Scrum of Scrums, and Inspect & Adapt (I&A) workshops to ensure alignment and continuous improvement. The RTE provides support and guidance to Scrum Masters, helping them resolve impediments that affect the ART.
Product Owner (PO):
Role: The Product Owner is responsible for defining and prioritizing the team backlog, ensuring that the team is working on the most valuable tasks.
Interaction with Scrum Master:
Scrum Masters work closely with Product Owners to facilitate effective backlog refinement sessions, ensuring that the backlog items are well-understood and ready for iteration planning. They support the Product Owner in maintaining a clear and prioritized backlog, helping to communicate the vision and goals to the team.
During iteration planning and reviews, Scrum Masters assist Product Owners in engaging with the team and stakeholders, ensuring that feedback is collected and incorporated.
SAFe Scrum Master


Reference:

Release Train Engineer:
SAFe materials outline the critical role of the RTE in coordinating the ART and supporting Scrum Masters in their efforts to remove impediments and ensure smooth execution of plans. Scrum Open: Discusses the collaborative relationship between Scrum Masters and RTEs in facilitating ART events and managing dependencies.
Product Owner:
The SAFe framework emphasizes the importance of the Scrum Master-Product Owner partnership in driving the delivery of value and maintaining a healthy backlog. Product Owner Open: Provides insights into how Scrum Masters and Product Owners work together to align on priorities and ensure the team is focused on the right tasks.



What is the primary goal of decentralized decision-making?

  1. To resolve dependencies
  2. To minimize VVIP www
  3. To empower knowledge workers
  4. To reduce delay

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Decentralized decision-making is a principle in SAFe aimed at distributing decision authority to the people closest to the information and most affected by the decisions. The primary goal of decentralized decision-making is to reduce delay in the decision-making process, which can often occur when decisions need to pass through multiple layers of hierarchy. By empowering individuals and teams to make decisions quickly, organizations can respond faster to changes, improve agility, and maintain a steady flow of work.



What goes into the Portfolio Backlog?

  1. Strategic Themes
  2. Projects
  3. Capabilities
  4. Epics

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The Portfolio Backlog in SAFe contains the larger initiatives, known as Epics. Epics are substantial pieces of work that require analysis, investment, and development effort over multiple Program Increments (PIs). They represent significant business or technical needs that drive the long-term strategy of the organization. These Epics are prioritized and managed in the Portfolio Backlog, where they can be decomposed into smaller, actionable items as they progress through the development process.



Why is the program predictability measure the primary Metric used during the quantitative measurement part of the Inspect and Adapt event?

  1. To measure the predictability of business value delivered in the PI timebox
  2. To predict the scope of the remaining requirements in the Program Backlog
  3. To forecast when remaining features could be delivered to customers
  4. To match customer demand to the Agile Release Train's velocity

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The program predictability measure is the primary metric used during the quantitative measurement part of the Inspect and Adapt (I&A) event in SAFe. This measure assesses how reliably the Agile Release Train (ART) can deliver business value within the Program Increment (PI) timebox. It helps to:
Evaluate the team's ability to meet their commitments.
Identify areas where predictability can be improved.

Ensure that the business value planned for the PI is actually delivered. By focusing on the predictability of business value, organizations can better align their planning and execution efforts, ultimately enhancing customer satisfaction and achieving strategic goals more effectively.
SAFe Scrum Master Reference
SAFe Inspect and Adapt events
SAFe 5.0 framework: using program predictability as a key metric to assess and improve ART performance.



If the distance between the arrival and departure curves on a team's cumulative flow diagram is growing apart, what is likely happening?

  1. Lead time is increasing
  2. Unplanned work is pushed into the backlog
  3. WIP is decreasing
  4. The backlog is being reprioritized

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Cumulative Flow Diagram (CFD): A CFD is a visual tool used in Kanban and Scrum to show the progress of work items through different stages of the workflow over time. Arrival and Departure Curves: These curves represent the work items entering (arrival) and leaving (departure) the system.
Growing Distance: If the distance between the arrival and departure curves on the CFD is growing apart, it indicates that work items are taking longer to move through the system. Lead Time: This term refers to the total time from when a work item is created until it is completed. An increasing distance between the curves means that work items are spending more time in the system, thus increasing the lead time.
SAFe Scrum Master


Reference:

SAFe materials on flow metrics and Kanban principles highlight the importance of monitoring lead time and using CFDs to identify bottlenecks and inefficiencies in the workflow.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

Anonymous
E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

UNITED KINGDOM
V
vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

i need to pass exam for VMware 2V0-11.25

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