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Real Estate Licensing Virginia Real Estate Salesperson Virginia-Real-Estate-Salesperson Dumps in PDF

Free Real Estate Licensing Virginia-Real-Estate-Salesperson Real Questions (page: 4)

Virginia-Real-Estate-Salesperson PDF — 120 Questions

A partially amortizing loan will include:

  1. a balloon payment
  2. non-refinancing clauses
  3. multiple lenders
  4. equal monthly payments that contribute to both principal and interest until the entire loan is paid

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A partially amortizing loan requires regular monthly payments covering interest and some principal, but the loan is not fully paid off at the end of the term.

At maturity, a balloon payment (lump sum of the remaining balance) is due.

Other options:

(B) Non-refinancing clause ­ not a defining feature.

(C) Multiple lenders ­ irrelevant.

(D) Equal monthly payments until fully paid ­ that describes a fully amortizing loan, not partial.


Reference:

Virginia Real Estate Finance Principles ­ Loan types

National exam content outline (Amortization & balloon loans)



A form of insurance that protects the policyholder by covering any losses they might incur as a result of theft or fraud by specified individuals is:

  1. a risk management bond
  2. a liability bond
  3. a security bond
  4. a fidelity bond

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A fidelity bond is a type of insurance that protects employers or organizations against losses caused by theft, fraud, or dishonesty of employees or other specified individuals.

Other options are distractors:

(A) Risk management bond ­ not a recognized insurance product.

(B) Liability bond ­ would cover liability for damages, not theft/fraud.

(C) Security bond ­ general term, but not the correct insurance product here.


Reference:

Virginia Real Estate Practice Text ­ Risk management and insurance section

Real Estate Board CE Curriculum ­ Brokerage risk & trust account protections



In Virginia, how many years do records need to be kept for?

  1. three years
  2. five years
  3. two years
  4. one year

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Virginia requires brokers and firms to retain all financial, transactional, and escrow records for three years.

This includes contracts, disclosures, closing statements, and escrow records.

The three-year period usually begins from the date of closing or termination of the transaction.


Reference:

Virginia Code §54.1-2108 (Broker records retention requirements)



Why do lenders need liquidity?

  1. so loans can be packaged together to create MBSs
  2. so they have the funds to originate more loans
  3. so they can put their money in long-term assets
  4. to qualify for FHA insurance

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Liquidity is a lender's ability to quickly convert assets into cash.

When lenders sell loans on the secondary mortgage market or securitize them into mortgage-backed securities (MBSs), they regain capital.

This liquidity allows lenders to issue more loans to new borrowers.

Other options:

(A) MBSs are a method to create liquidity, not the purpose.

(C) Investing in long-term assets would reduce liquidity.

(D) FHA insurance does not require liquidity.


Reference:

Fannie Mae & Freddie Mac guidelines

Virginia Real Estate Finance Principles ­ Secondary Mortgage Market section



In addition to evaluating borrower creditworthiness, to complete the loan approval process, the underwriter needs to evaluate the:

  1. tender
  2. property
  3. broker
  4. seller

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Loan underwriting evaluates two things:

Borrower's creditworthiness (income, debt, credit score).

The property's value and suitability (via appraisal, condition, and title review).

The lender needs to ensure that the property provides sufficient collateral in case of default.

Other options:

(A) Tender ­ unrelated.

(C) Broker ­ not evaluated.

(D) Seller ­ irrelevant to loan approval.


Reference:

Fannie Mae Selling Guide ­ Loan Underwriting

Virginia Real Estate Finance Principles ­ Loan Process



Who regulates fair housing advertising?

  1. HMDA
  2. HUD
  3. CRA
  4. ECOA

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) regulates fair housing advertising under the Fair Housing Act (1968).

HUD issues rules on wording, images, and equal housing opportunity statements in ads.

Other agencies:

(A) HMDA (Home Mortgage Disclosure Act) ­ focuses on lending data, not advertising.

(C) CRA (Community Reinvestment Act) ­ ensures banks serve all communities fairly.

(D) ECOA (Equal Credit Opportunity Act) ­ prohibits discrimination in lending, not ads.


Reference:

Fair Housing Act, 42 U.S.C. §3601 et seq.

HUD Fair Housing Advertising Guidelines

Virginia Fair Housing Law (Title 36, Chapter 5.1)



What rights govern the use of flowing water, such as rivers or streams?

  1. riparian rights
  2. percolating rights
  3. appropriative rights
  4. littoral rights

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Riparian rights apply to landowners whose property borders flowing water such as rivers or streams. Owners have reasonable rights to use the water, provided it doesn't harm upstream/downstream users.

Other options:

(B) Percolating rights ­ apply to underground water.

(C) Appropriative rights ­ water rights granted by permit (common in western states, not Virginia).

(D) Littoral rights ­ apply to non-flowing waters (lakes, oceans, seas).


Reference:

Virginia Real Estate Principles & Practices ­ Water Rights Section

Code of Virginia, Title 62.1 (Waters of the State, Ports and Harbors)



An opinion of title, a certificate of title, a Torrens certificate, and title insurance are all examples of:

  1. cloud on a title
  2. equitable title
  3. evidence of title
  4. chain of title

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Evidence of title refers to documents or assurances showing that the seller has good title to convey.

Examples include:

Opinion of title (by attorney)

Certificate of title

Torrens certificate

Title insurance policy

These are all methods of proving ownership rights.

Other options:

(A) Cloud on title = defects/encumbrances.

(B) Equitable title = buyer's right after signing a contract but before closing.

(D) Chain of title = historical record of ownership.


Reference:

Virginia Real Estate Principles & Practices ­ Title Evidence

Code of Virginia §55.1 (Property and Conveyances)



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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UNITED STATES
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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

UNITED KINGDOM
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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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SOUTH AFRICA
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Adekunle willaims
6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

How reliable and relevant are these questions?? also i can see the last update here was January and definitely new questions would have emerged.

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