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Real Estate Licensing Virginia Real Estate Salesperson Virginia-Real-Estate-Salesperson Dumps in PDF

Free Real Estate Licensing Virginia-Real-Estate-Salesperson Real Questions (page: 1)

Virginia-Real-Estate-Salesperson PDF — 120 Questions

In Virginia, what is the difference between the REB and theFHB?

  1. The FHB is responsible for the enforcement of the fair housing law for real estate licensees. The REB is responsible for all other violators.
  2. The REB is responsible for the enforcement of the fair housing law for real estate licensees. The FHB is responsible for all other violators.
  3. The REB reports to HUD, while the FHB does not.
  4. They are the same thing.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

In Virginia, two separate bodies manage different aspects of housing regulation and enforcement:

Real Estate Board (REB):

The REB, operating under the Virginia Department of Professional and Occupational Regulation (DPOR), is responsible for regulating and enforcing real estate laws and regulations related to licensed real estate professionals. This includes education, licensure, conduct, disciplinary action, and fair housing compliance specifically for licensees (e.g., salespersons and brokers).

Authority Source: Title 54.1, Chapter 21 of the Code of Virginia.

Regulatory oversight: Violations of fair housing law by real estate licensees (salespersons or brokers) are investigated and enforced by the REB.

Fair Housing Board (FHB):

The FHB, also under DPOR but functioning independently from the REB, is tasked with enforcing Virginia's Fair Housing Law (outside of licensee jurisdiction). This includes addressing violations by:

Unlicensed individuals

Property owners

Landlords and property managers who are not licensed real estate professionals

Other entities not subject to REB regulation

This clear division ensures that real estate licensees are held accountable by the REB, while the FHB addresses violations by those not regulated through licensure.

Reference (without URLs):

Virginia Code § 54.1-2105 (Regulation and enforcement powers of the Real Estate Board)

Virginia Fair Housing Law: Title 36, Chapter 5.1 of the Code of Virginia

Real Estate Regulations (18 VAC 135-20-10 et seq.)

DPOR Guidance and Organizational Structure (as outlined in the A490-02REGS.pdf document)



Mindy experienced a foreclosure process that included being named as a defendant in a lawsuit by her lender and seeing her home sold in a foreclosure sale. From that information, what can you guess about the category of foreclosure used and who holds the title to the property?

  1. A judicial foreclosure was necessary because Mindy holds the title.
  2. A judicial foreclosure was necessary because the lender holds the title.
  3. A nonjudicial foreclosure was necessary because a trustee holds the title.
  4. A nonjudicial foreclosure was necessary because Mindy holds the title.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In Virginia, foreclosures can generally fall into two categories: judicial foreclosure and nonjudicial foreclosure.

Judicial Foreclosure

This process occurs when the lender must file a lawsuit in court against the borrower (the homeowner).

The borrower is named as a defendant in the case.

Judicial foreclosure is required when the borrower (Mindy) holds legal title to the property. In this situation, the court oversees the process, and a foreclosure sale is ordered by the judge.

In the scenario given, Mindy was sued by her lender and named as a defendant. That is a hallmark sign of judicial foreclosure.

Nonjudicial Foreclosure

This process does not involve a lawsuit. Instead, it relies on a power of sale clause in the deed of trust.

In Virginia (a deed of trust state), a trustee typically holds legal title until the loan is repaid. If the borrower defaults, the trustee can sell the property without court involvement.

Because Mindy's case specifically involved a lawsuit and court action, this does not match a nonjudicial foreclosure.

Who Holds Title?

In a judicial foreclosure, the borrower (Mindy) holds legal title to the property until the court authorizes a sale.

The fact that the lender had to sue confirms that Mindy held the title, not the trustee.

Reference (without URLs):

Virginia Code § 55.1-3200 et seq. (Foreclosure laws in Virginia)

Real Estate Regulations (A490-02REGS.pdf) ­ sections on property rights and foreclosure process included under continuing education requirements

Virginia Practice: Real Estate Principles and Practices ­ discussion of judicial vs. nonjudicial foreclosure distinctions in title-holding states versus deed-of-trust states.



In Virginia, agents practicing no agency (transaction coordinators) are sometimes referred to as:

  1. single agents
  2. intermediaries
  3. dual agents
  4. appraisers

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

In Virginia, agency law recognizes several forms of representation that real estate licensees may provide. These include standard agency, dual agency, and limited service agency. But Virginia also allows licensees to operate in a capacity where they provide no agency representation to either party.

No Agency (also called "Independent Contractor" or "Facilitator/Transaction Coordinator")

When a licensee assists in a real estate transaction without representing either the buyer or the seller, they are said to be practicing "no agency."

In this capacity, the licensee does not advocate for either side but may assist with paperwork, communication, and coordination of the transaction.

In Virginia, such licensees are sometimes referred to as intermediaries.

Why not the other options?

Single Agent (A): A single agent represents only one party (buyer or seller) in the transaction with full fiduciary duties. This is the most common agency relationship.

Dual Agent (C): A dual agent represents both buyer and seller in the same transaction with limited duties to each. This is a recognized but restricted practice in Virginia.

Appraiser (D): An appraiser is a licensed professional who provides valuation services and is not acting as an agent or intermediary in the transaction.

Because Mindy's question specifies no agency, the correct Virginia terminology aligns with "intermediary."

Reference (without URLs):

Code of Virginia, Title 54.1, Chapter 21 ­ Real Estate Brokers, Salespersons, and Rental Location

Agents (§ 54.1-2130 et seq.) (defining agency and non-agency relationships)

Real Estate Board Regulations (18 VAC 135-20-10 Definitions; 18 VAC 135-20-300 Standards of Conduct)

Virginia Real Estate Principles & Practices ­ discussion on transaction coordinators/intermediaries and their duties under no-agency status



Sellers and license holders are required to disclose lead- based paint hazards on all properties built before:

  1. 1976
  2. 1978
  3. 1974
  4. 1972

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Both federal law (Title X of the 1992 Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act) and Virginia regulations require disclosure of any known lead-based paint hazards for residential properties built before 1978. This includes:

Providing buyers/renters with a lead disclosure form.

Giving them a lead hazard information pamphlet.

Allowing an optional 10-day inspection period.

Reason: Lead-based paint was widely used in homes until the U.S. banned consumer use in 1978.
Thus, 1978 is the cutoff year.


Reference:

42 U.S.C. §4852d (Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act)

Code of Virginia Title 55.1, Property & Conveyances (Disclosure requirements)



A leasehold agreement where the base rent changes is called a:

  1. variable lease
  2. net lease
  3. percentage lease
  4. lease-purchase agreement

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A variable lease (sometimes called an index lease) is a lease agreement in which the base rent changes during the lease term. Adjustments may occur based on:

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

Scheduled increases at certain intervals

Other options are incorrect:

Net Lease: Tenant pays base rent + some or all property expenses.

Percentage Lease: Rent is based partly on tenant's gross sales (common in retail).

Lease-Purchase Agreement: Tenant leases property with option or obligation to purchase.

Since the question specifies base rent changes, the correct term is variable lease.


Reference:

Virginia Real Estate Principles & Practices (Leasing section)

Real Estate Board Exam Content Outline: Contracts & Leases



What is one way that a contract for deed differs from a standard real estate sales contract?

  1. A contract for deed has the purchase price in it.
  2. A contract for deed includes a financing clause.
  3. A contract for deed's purchase price section details the buyer's payment plan to the seller.
  4. A contract for deed includes a section about a flip tax.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

A contract for deed (also called a land contract or installment sale contract) differs from a standard purchase agreement because:

Buyer makes installment payments directly to the seller.

Seller retains legal title until all payments are made.

Buyer holds equitable title during the payment period.

In contrast, a standard sales contract usually involves financing through a lender, and title transfers at closing.

Thus, the key difference is that a contract for deed spells out the buyer's payment plan to the seller, not just the purchase price.


Reference:

Code of Virginia §55.1 (Property & Conveyances)

Virginia Real Estate Board CE Outline ­ Contracts Section



In which of these cases should an agent disclose information about someone's HIV/AIDS status?

  1. only when a buyer client insists on knowing this information
  2. Agents should never disclose or inquire about someone's HIV/AIDS status.
  3. only if the seller has previously made their HIV or AIDS status public
  4. only if the seller or tenant's status has caused the property to be stigmatized

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Under Virginia Fair Housing Law (and federal law under the Fair Housing Amendments Act of 1988), individuals with HIV/AIDS are protected as having a disability.

Licensees must not inquire about or disclose a client's HIV/AIDS status.

Doing so would constitute discrimination and a violation of fair housing law.

Even if a buyer requests this information, agents must not disclose it.

Other options are illegal and unethical.


Reference:

Virginia Code Title 36, Chapter 5.1 ­ Fair Housing Law

U.S. Fair Housing Act, 42 U.S.C. §3601 et seq.

Virginia Real Estate Board CE Curriculum ­ Fair Housing



Which of these is a person who is licensed to represent one of the parties in a real estate transaction in exchange for a commission or other valuable consideration?

  1. salesperson
  2. assistant broker
  3. broker
  4. appraiser

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

In Virginia, a real estate broker is the person licensed to represent one of the parties in a real estate transaction in exchange for commission or other valuable consideration.

Salesperson (A): Licensed to perform brokerage activities but only under the supervision of a broker; cannot independently represent a party for commission.

Assistant Broker (B): Not an official license category in Virginia.

Appraiser (D): Licensed to determine property value, not to represent parties in real estate transactions.

Thus, the correct answer is broker.


Reference:

Code of Virginia §54.1-2100 (Definitions)

Virginia Real Estate Board Regulations (18 VAC 135-20)



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
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  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
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4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
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4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
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Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

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  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
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4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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Hamburg, Germany
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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

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United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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UNITED STATES
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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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Anonymous
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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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UNITED STATES
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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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