Real Estate Licensing Virginia Real Estate Salesperson Virginia-Real-Estate-Salesperson Dumps in PDF

Free Real Estate Licensing Virginia-Real-Estate-Salesperson Real Questions (page: 2)

Lillian is buying a home for $355,000. She is going to put down $75,000 as her down payment on her conventional loan. Will Lillian be required to pay private mortgage insurance?

  1. No, but it depends solely on her credit score.
  2. Yes, PMI is required until she reaches 50% equity.
  3. Yes, her down payment does not meet the requirements to eliminate PMI.
  4. No, her down payment is large enough to avoid PMI.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Private Mortgage Insurance (PMI) is generally required when a borrower puts down less than 20% on a conventional loan.

Lillian's home price = $355,000

Down payment = $75,000

Loan amount = $280,000

Down payment % = $75,000 ÷ $355,000 21.1%

Since Lillian's down payment exceeds 20%, PMI is not required.

Other options:

(A) Wrong -- PMI is based on equity, not just credit score.

(B) Wrong -- PMI never requires 50% equity.

(C) Wrong -- She meets the equity threshold.


Reference:

Fannie Mae/Freddie Mac Conventional Loan Guidelines

Virginia Real Estate Exam Outline ­ Financing Section



Which of these ownership concepts gives each co-owner the right to possession of the whole property?

  1. sole proprietorship
  2. undivided interest
  3. unity of time
  4. equitable interest

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

In co-ownership, the principle of undivided interest means each co-owner has:

The right to possess and use the entire property, not just a physical portion.

Equal rights of possession regardless of ownership percentage.

Other options:

Sole proprietorship (A): Single owner, not co-ownership.

Unity of time (C): A required element of joint tenancy but not the concept granting rights to the whole property.

Equitable interest (D): Refers to the rights of a buyer under contract before receiving legal title.

Thus, the correct answer is undivided interest.


Reference:

Virginia Real Estate Principles & Practices (Ownership Section)

Code of Virginia §55.1 (Property & Conveyances)



What does the VRLTA aim to do?

  1. regulate landlord maintenance practices for industrial warehouses across the United States
  2. monitor commercial leasing practices in Virginia
  3. establish uniform laws to regulate leasehold interests and improve leasing practices in Virginia
  4. regulate owner-occupied REO properties in Virginia

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The Virginia Residential Landlord and Tenant Act (VRLTA) was enacted to:

Establish uniform standards for rental housing in Virginia.

Govern leasehold interests in residential property.

Clarify landlord and tenant rights/responsibilities.

Improve rental practices, reduce disputes, and ensure fairness.

Other options:

(A) Wrong -- VRLTA applies to Virginia residential properties, not industrial warehouses nationwide.

(B) Wrong -- It does not apply to commercial leasing.

(D) Wrong -- It does not regulate REO or owner-occupied property.


Reference:

Code of Virginia, Title 55.1, Chapter 12 ­ Virginia Residential Landlord and Tenant Act (VRLTA)

Virginia Real Estate Board CE Curriculum ­ Landlord & Tenant Law



Trystan and Nia enter into a contract for the sale of a tiny house. Trystan is 17. Closing is supposed to occur in two weeks. This contract is:

  1. executed and voidable
  2. executory and void
  3. executory and voidable
  4. executed and void

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

A contract is executory when its terms have not yet been fully performed (here, closing has not yet occurred).

Because Trystan is 17 years old, he is a minor under Virginia law (legal capacity begins at 18). A minor's contract is generally voidable at the option of the minor, but enforceable against the adult party.

Therefore, this contract is executory (not yet performed) and voidable (due to Trystan's age).


Reference:

Code of Virginia §1-204 (Age of majority = 18)

Virginia Real Estate Board Exam Outline ­ Contracts (capacity, validity, executory vs executed)



Which of the following discussions is a violation of antitrust laws and is also an anti-competitive practice?

  1. two brokers discussing how to cooperate more effectively in a specific real estate transaction
  2. brokers commenting on the siding color on a newly listed home in their area
  3. brokers agreeing to not show a certain broker's listings to their clients because they don't like that broker
  4. two brokers discussing new laws enacted in their county

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Antitrust laws (Sherman Act, Clayton Act, and Virginia state law) prohibit anti-competitive practices in real estate. The most common violations are:

Price fixing (agreeing on commission rates)

Group boycotting (refusing to deal with a broker or vendor)

Market allocation (dividing territories/clients)

Tie-in arrangements

Here, brokers agreeing not to show another broker's listings is a group boycott, which is a violation of antitrust law.

Other options:

(A) Cooperation in a transaction = legal.

(B) Comments on siding color = legal, not antitrust.

(D) Discussing new laws = legal.


Reference:

Sherman Antitrust Act, 15 U.S.C. §§ 1­7

Virginia Real Estate Board CE Outline ­ Antitrust in Brokerage



Which of the following is a unique quality of limited service agents in Virginia?

  1. Limited service agents can assist in neither residential nor commercial transactions.
  2. Limited service agents can assist in residential transactions ONLY.
  3. Limited service agents can assist in commercial transactions ONLY.
  4. Limited service agents can assist in both residential and commercial transactions.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In Virginia, a limited service agent is a licensee who enters into a brokerage agreement that provides fewer services than a standard brokerage agreement.

The law requires that the agent's limited duties must be disclosed in writing.

These agents can operate in both residential and commercial transactions, not just one type.

Other options:

(A) Wrong -- They can assist in both.

(B) Wrong -- Not limited to residential.

(C) Wrong -- Not limited to commercial.


Reference:

Code of Virginia §54.1-2138.1 (Limited service agent defined)

Real Estate Board Regulations, 18 VAC 135-20-300



What deed provides the grantee with the least protection of any deed, while putting the least liability on the grantor?

  1. general warranty deed
  2. special warranty deed
  3. quitclaim deed
  4. bargain and sale deed

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Deed types vary by the level of protection given to the grantee and liability for the grantor:

General Warranty Deed (A): Highest protection; grantor warrants title against all defects, even before their ownership.

Special Warranty Deed (B): Warrants only against defects during the grantor's ownership.

Quitclaim Deed (C): Provides no warranties at all -- it only conveys whatever interest (if any) the grantor may have. Offers the least protection for the grantee and least liability for the grantor.

Bargain and Sale Deed (D): Conveys ownership but with limited or no warranties; still greater than quitclaim in most contexts.

Thus, the quitclaim deed gives the grantee the least protection.


Reference:

Code of Virginia §55.1-300 et seq. (Conveyances and deeds)

Virginia Real Estate Principles & Practices ­ Deeds section



Harry, an agent, transfers some money from an escrow account into his personal savings accounts.
What is he doing and is it legal or illegal?

  1. This is commingling, and it is legal.
  2. This is conversion, and it is illegal.
  3. This is commingling, and it is illegal.
  4. This is conversion, and it is legal.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Commingling occurs when a licensee mixes clients' escrow funds with their own funds in the same account. This is prohibited but usually involves "mixing," not directly taking the money.

Conversion occurs when a licensee uses or transfers client funds for personal use, such as Harry moving money from an escrow account to his personal account.

Conversion is considered a serious violation of Virginia license law and is illegal.


Reference:

Virginia Code §54.1-2108.1 (Maintenance and management of escrow accounts)



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
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3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

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