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Linux Foundation Certified Cloud Native Platform Engineering Associate CNPA Dumps in PDF

Free Linux Foundation CNPA Real Questions (page: 5)

CNPA PDF — 85 Questions

In a Kubernetes environment, which component is responsible for watching the state of resources during the reconciliation process?

  1. Kubernetes Scheduler
  2. Kubernetes Dashboard
  3. Kubernetes API Server
  4. Kubernetes Controller

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The Kubernetes reconciliation process ensures that the actual cluster state matches the desired state defined in manifests. The Kubernetes Controller (option D) is responsible for watching the state of resources through the API Server and taking action to reconcile differences. For example, the Deployment Controller ensures that the number of Pods matches the replica count specified, while the Node Controller monitors node health.

Option A (Scheduler) is incorrect because the Scheduler's role is to assign Pods to nodes based on constraints and availability, not ongoing reconciliation. Option B (Dashboard) is simply a UI for visualization and does not manage cluster state. Option C (API Server) exposes the Kubernetes API and serves as the communication hub, but it does not perform reconciliation logic itself.

Controllers embody the core Kubernetes design principle: continuous reconciliation between declared state and observed state. This makes them fundamental to declarative infrastructure and aligns with GitOps practices where controllers continuously enforce desired configurations from source control.


Reference:

-- CNCF Kubernetes Documentation

-- CNCF GitOps Principles

-- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide



To simplify service consumption for development teams on a Kubernetes platform, which approach combines service discovery with an abstraction of underlying infrastructure details?

  1. Manual service dependencies configuration within application code.
  2. Shared service connection strings and network configurations document.
  3. Direct Kubernetes API access with detailed documentation.
  4. Service catalog with abstracted APIs and automated service registration.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Simplifying developer access to platform services is a central goal of internal developer platforms (IDPs). Option D is correct because a service catalog with abstracted APIs and automated registration provides a unified interface for developers to consume services without dealing with low-level infrastructure details. This approach combines service discovery with abstraction, offering golden paths and self-service capabilities.

Option A burdens developers with hardcoded dependencies, reducing flexibility and portability. Option B relies on manual documentation, which is error-prone and not dynamic. Option C increases cognitive load by requiring developers to interact directly with Kubernetes APIs, which goes against platform engineering's goal of reducing complexity.

A service catalog enables developers to provision databases, messaging queues, or APIs with minimal input, while the platform automates backend provisioning and wiring. It also improves consistency, compliance, and observability by embedding platform-wide policies into the service provisioning workflows. This results in a seamless developer experience that accelerates delivery while maintaining governance.


Reference:

-- CNCF Platforms Whitepaper

-- CNCF Platform Engineering Maturity Model

-- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide



A team wants to deploy a new feature to production for internal users only and be able to instantly disable it if problems occur, without redeploying code.
Which strategy is most suitable?

  1. Use a blue/green deployment to direct internal users to one version and switch as needed.
  2. Use feature flags to release the feature to selected users and control its availability through settings.
  3. Use a canary deployment to gradually expose the feature to a small group of random users.
  4. Deploy the feature to all users and prepare to roll it back manually if an issue is detected.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Feature flags are the most effective way to control feature exposure to specific users, such as internal testers, while enabling fast rollback without redeployment. Option B is correct because feature flags allow teams to decouple deployment from release, giving precise runtime control over feature availability. This means that once the code is deployed, the team can toggle the feature on or off for different cohorts (e.g., internal users) dynamically.

Option A (blue/green deployment) controls traffic between two environments but does not provide user-level granularity. Option C (canary deployments) gradually expose changes but focus on random subsets of users rather than targeted groups such as internal employees. Option D requires redeployment or rollback, which introduces risk and slows down incident response.

Feature flags are widely recognized in platform engineering as a core continuous delivery practice that improves safety, accelerates experimentation, and enhances resilience by enabling immediate mitigation of issues.


Reference:

-- CNCF Platforms Whitepaper

-- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide

-- Continuous Delivery Foundation Guidance



In the context of observability, which telemetry signal is primarily used to record events that occur within a system and are timestamped?

  1. Logs
  2. Alerts
  3. Traces
  4. Metrics

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Logs are detailed, timestamped records of discrete events that occur within a system. They provide granular insight into what has happened, making them crucial for debugging, auditing, and incident investigations. Option A is correct because logs capture both normal and error events, often containing contextual information such as error codes, user IDs, or request payloads.

Option B (alerts) are secondary outputs generated from telemetry signals like logs or metrics and are not raw data themselves. Option C (traces) represent the flow of requests across distributed systems, showing relationships and latency between services but not arbitrary events. Option D (metrics) are numeric aggregates sampled over intervals (e.g., CPU usage, latency), not discrete, timestamped events.

Observability guidance in cloud native systems emphasizes the "three pillars" of telemetry: logs, metrics, and traces. Logs are indispensable for root cause analysis and compliance because they preserve historical event context.


Reference:

-- CNCF Observability Whitepaper

-- OpenTelemetry Documentation (aligned with CNCF)

-- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide



In assessing the effectiveness of platform engineering initiatives, which DORA metric most directly correlates to the time it takes for code from its initial commit to be deployed into production?

  1. Lead Time for Changes
  2. Deployment Frequency
  3. Mean Time to Recovery
  4. Change Failure Rate

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Lead Time for Changes is a DORA (DevOps Research and Assessment) metric that measures the time from code commit to successful deployment in production. Option A is correct because it directly reflects how quickly the platform enables developers to turn ideas into delivered software. Shorter lead times indicate an efficient delivery pipeline, streamlined workflows, and effective automation.

Option B (Deployment Frequency) measures how often code is deployed, not how long it takes to reach production. Option C (Mean Time to Recovery) measures operational resilience after failures. Option D (Change Failure Rate) indicates stability by measuring the percentage of deployments causing incidents.
While all DORA metrics are valuable, only Lead Time for Changes measures end- to-end speed of delivery.

In platform engineering, improving lead time often involves automating CI/CD pipelines, implementing GitOps, and reducing manual approvals. It is a core measurement of developer experience and platform efficiency.


Reference:

-- CNCF Platforms Whitepaper

-- Accelerate: State of DevOps Report (DORA Metrics)

-- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide



In the context of observability for cloud native platforms, which of the following best describes the role of OpenTelemetry?

  1. OpenTelemetry is primarily used for logging data only.
  2. OpenTelemetry is a proprietary solution that limits its use to specific cloud providers.
  3. OpenTelemetry provides a standardized way to collect and transmit observability data.
  4. OpenTelemetry is solely focused on infrastructure monitoring.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

OpenTelemetry is an open-source CNCF project that provides vendor-neutral, standardized APIs, SDKs, and agents for collecting and exporting observability data such as metrics, logs, and traces. Option C is correct because OpenTelemetry's purpose is to unify how telemetry data is generated, transmitted, and consumed, regardless of which backend (e.g., Prometheus, Jaeger, Elastic, commercial APM tools) is used.

Option A is incorrect because OpenTelemetry supports all three signal types (metrics, logs, traces), not just logs. Option B is incorrect because it is an open, community-driven standard and not tied to a single vendor or cloud provider. Option D is misleading because OpenTelemetry covers distributed applications, services, and infrastructure--far beyond just infrastructure monitoring.

OpenTelemetry reduces vendor lock-in and promotes interoperability, making it a cornerstone of cloud native observability strategies. Platform engineering teams rely on it to ensure consistent data collection, enabling better insights, faster debugging, and improved reliability of cloud native platforms.


Reference:

-- CNCF Observability Whitepaper

-- OpenTelemetry CNCF Project Documentation

-- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide



A company is implementing a service mesh for secure service-to-service communication in their cloud native environment.
What is the primary benefit of using mutual TLS (mTLS) within this context?

  1. Allows services to authenticate each other and secure data in transit.
  2. Allows services to bypass security checks for better performance.
  3. Enables logging of all service communications for audit purposes.
  4. Simplifies the deployment of microservices by automatically scaling them.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Mutual TLS (mTLS) is a core feature of service meshes, such as Istio or Linkerd, that enhances security in cloud native environments by ensuring that both communicating services authenticate each other and that the communication channel is encrypted. Option A is correct because mTLS delivers two critical benefits: authentication (verifying the identity of both client and server services) and encryption (protecting data in transit from interception or tampering).

Option B is incorrect because mTLS does not bypass security--it enforces it. Option C is partly true in that service meshes often support observability and logging, but that is not the primary purpose of mTLS. Option D relates to scaling, which is outside the scope of mTLS.

In platform engineering, mTLS is a fundamental security mechanism that provides zero-trust networking between microservices, ensuring secure communication without requiring application- level changes. It strengthens compliance with security and data protection requirements, which are crucial in regulated industries.


Reference:

-- CNCF Service Mesh Whitepaper

-- CNCF Platforms Whitepaper

-- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide



What is the primary purpose of using multiple environments (e.g., development, staging, production) in a cloud native platform?

  1. Isolates different stages of application development and deployment
  2. Reduces cloud costs by running applications in different locations.
  3. Increases application performance by distributing traffic.
  4. Ensures all applications use the same infrastructure.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The primary reason for implementing multiple environments in cloud native platforms is to isolate the different phases of the software development lifecycle. Option A is correct because environments such as development, staging, and production enable testing and validation at each stage without impacting end users. Development environments allow rapid iteration, staging environments simulate production for integration and performance testing, and production environments serve real users.

Option B (reducing costs) may be a side effect but is not the main purpose. Option C (distributing traffic) relates more to load balancing and high availability, not environment separation. Option D is the opposite of the goal--different environments often require tailored infrastructure to meet their distinct purposes.

Isolation through multiple environments is fundamental to reducing risk, supporting continuous delivery, and ensuring stability. This practice also allows for compliance checks, automated testing, and user acceptance validation before changes reach production.


Reference:

-- CNCF Platforms Whitepaper

-- Team Topologies & Platform Engineering Guidance

-- Cloud Native Platform Engineering Study Guide



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

Oslo, Norway
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
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