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Huawei HCIA-5G-RAN V3.0 Exam H35-480_V3.0 Dumps in PDF

Free Huawei H35-480_V3.0 Real Questions (page: 7)

H35-480_V3.0 PDF — 60 Questions

F-OFDM over the NR air interface uses flexible subcarrier spacing to meet the requirements of different 5G service scenarios.
Which of the following types of subcarrier spacing is not supported by Sub6G?

  1. 120KHz
  2. 15KHz
  3. 60KHZ
  4. 30KHz

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

F-OFDM (Filtered Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing) over the NR air interface uses flexible subcarrier spacing to meet the requirements of different 5G service scenarios. F-OFDM is a 5G physical layer waveform that is designed to provide high spectral efficiency, low complexity and low latency. It uses a flexible subcarrier spacing, which can be adjusted to meet the requirements of different 5G services. The subcarrier spacing can be 15KHz, 30KHz, 60KHz, or 120KHz. Sub-6GHz 5G networks are designed to provide wide-area coverage and support high data rate services such as mobile broadband, IoT, and critical communications. Sub-6GHz band is mainly used for 5G deployment in rural areas, and in-building coverage.

Therefore, the subcarrier spacing that is not supported by Sub-6GHz is 120KHz. So the correct answer is A. 120KHz. It's worth noting that each subcarrier spacing has its own advantages and disadvantages. 120KHz spacing is mainly used for low mobility services such as fixed wireless access, while 15KHz spacing is mainly used for high mobility services such as mobile broadband.



The mmWave range is new for NR. It supports the largest bandwidth in a cell but has poor coverage capabilities. It requires high performance from RF components and generally applies only to line of sight (LOS) coverage.

  1. True
  2. False

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The mmWave range is a new spectrum range for 5G NR, and it supports the largest bandwidth in a cell. However, it has poor coverage capabilities, as it requires high performance from RF components and generally applies only to line of sight (LOS) coverage. This makes it challenging to use in many applications, as it requires careful planning and implementation in order to ensure effective coverage.
https://www.gsma.com/futurenetworks/wiki/5g-implementation-guidelines/ 5G Implementation Guidelines: NSA Option 3 - Future Networks https://www.gsma.com/futurenetworks/wiki/5g-implementation-guidelines/ https://www.ericsson.com/en/ran
5G RAN - Radio Access Networks - Ericsson https://www.ericsson.com/en/ran https://www.5gamericas.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/InDesign-Understanding-mmWave-for- 5G-Networks.pdf
Understanding mmWave for 5G Networks 1 - 5G Americas https://www.5gamericas.org/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/InDesign-Understanding-mmWave-for- 5G-Networks.pdf

The millimeter wave (mmWave) range is new for 5G NR (New Radio). It supports the largest bandwidth in a cell but has poor coverage capabilities. It requires high performance from RF

components and generally applies only to line of sight (LOS) coverage. The mmWave range is considered to be the higher frequency range of the 5G spectrum and it includes frequencies above 24GHz, such as 28GHz, 38GHz and 60GHz. These frequencies offer a large amount of bandwidth, which is necessary to support high-data rate services, such as ultra-high- definition video streaming, virtual reality, and the internet of things. However, the mmWave range has poor coverage capabilities because the signals are easily blocked by obstacles such as buildings and trees, and they also have a shorter propagation distance than lower frequency bands. Therefore, mmWave range is generally used for high-density urban areas, and indoor environments.
Additionally, RF components for mmWave have to meet high performance requirements, such as high linearity, high gain and high power handling capability. Also, the mmWave signals are highly sensitive to the presence or absence of a clear line of sight (LOS) between the transmitter and the receiver, which makes it less reliable for non-line-of-sight (NLOS) coverage.



Which of the following statements about the NR slot structure are correct? (Choose All that Apply)

  1. Downlink slots can only be used to transmit downlink data.
  2. Downlink self-contained slots can be used to transmit uplink data and SRSs.
  3. The number of symbols in one slot is fixed to 14 regardless of the subcarrier spacing configuration.
  4. The symbols in a slot can be classified as downlink, uplink, or flexible.

Answer(s): A,B,D

Explanation:

1. NR downlink slots are used to transmit downlink data and control information, such as channel state information (CSI) and downlink control information (DCI). B. Downlink self-contained slots are also called as "Downlink Shared Channels (DL-SCH) slots", they can be used to transmit downlink data, but also can be used to transmit uplink control information (UCI) and sounding reference signals (SRS) in the downlink direction.
2. The symbols in a slot can be classified as downlink, uplink, or flexible, meaning that the symbols can be used to transmit data in either direction, or to transmit control information. It's worth noting that the NR slot structure is designed to be flexible and efficient, it allows for a variable slot duration and a variable number of symbols, depending on the subcarrier spacing and the number of resource blocks used. This flexibility is intended to support a wide range of services and traffic types.



5G inherits the frame structure of 4G, but the slot length can be adjusted based on different SCSs.
Which of the following is not a 5G slot length?

  1. 0.5ms
  2. 10ms
  3. 0.25ms
  4. 1ms

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

5G inherits the frame structure of 4G, but the slot length can be adjusted based on different subcarrier spacings (SCSs). The 5G slot length can be adjusted from 0.25ms to 1ms, with each slot containing one or more symbols.
The shorter the slot length, the higher the frequency and the less the coverage, but it allows for more efficient use of resources and higher data rates. The longer the slot length, the lower the frequency, the better the coverage, but it's less efficient in terms of resource usage and data rate. So, the correct answer is B. 10ms, is not a 5G slot length. It's worth noting that the 5G standard defines several slot lengths, and the choice of slot length depends on the specific use case and the requirements of the service being supported.



Which of the following parameters is related to the frequency-domain position of PBCH DMRSs?

  1. Cell ID
  2. PCI
  3. SI-RNTI
  4. Bandwidth

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

PCI (Physical Cell Identity) is related to the frequency-domain position of PBCH DMRSs (Physical Broadcast Channel Demodulation Reference Signals)
The PBCH DMRSs are used to demodulate the Physical Broadcast Channel (PBCH) which contains system information such as the cell identity, system bandwidth, and the downlink carrier frequency. The PBCH DMRSs are transmitted in the frequency domain, and their position is determined by the Physical Cell Identity (PCI). The PCI is a unique identifier assigned to each cell in the network, and it's used to identify the cell and its system information.
So, the correct answer is B. PCI. It's worth noting that the other parameters you mentioned are also related to the 5G system information and the cell configuration. Cell ID is a unique identifier assigned to each cell, SI-RNTI (System Information RNTI) is a unique identifier assigned to the system information, and Bandwidth is the amount of frequency resources allocated to the cell.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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UNITED STATES
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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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