Amazon
Anthropic
Avaya
Cisco
CompTIA
CrowdStrike
EC-Council
EXIN
Fortinet
Google
ISC
ISC2
ITIL
Juniper
Microsoft
NVIDIA
Okta
Palo Alto Networks
Salesforce
SAP
All Vendors

Huawei HCIP-Datacom-Core Technology V1.0 H12-821_V1.0 Dumps in PDF

Free Huawei H12-821_V1.0 Real Questions (page: 6)

H12-821_V1.0 PDF — 433 Questions

Which of the following statements about the AC's mobility group are false? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. STAs can roam only between ACs in the same mobility group.
  2. The mobility server must be an AC in the local mobility group.
  3. A mobility server needs to be specified for member ACs in a mobility group.
  4. ACs in the same mobility group encapsulate and transmit roaming information over the DTLS extended tunnel.

Answer(s): A,B

Explanation:

STAs can roam only between ACs in the same mobility group.
False: While STAs typically roam within the same mobility group for seamless handover, they can roam across different mobility groups if the network is configured to support inter-mobility group roaming through proper coordination and tunneling.
The mobility server must be an AC in the local mobility group.
False: A mobility server does not necessarily have to be an AC in the local mobility group. A mobility server can be a dedicated device or another AC, depending on the network configuration.



Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards is also known as Wi-Fi 6?

  1. 802.11n
  2. 802.11b
  3. 802.11ac
  4. 802.11ax

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Wi-Fi 6 is the marketing name for the IEEE 802.11ax standard. It is the latest generation of Wi-Fi technology designed to improve performance, capacity, and efficiency, especially in dense environments. Key features of Wi-Fi 6 include:
Higher data rates and improved throughput.

Better performance in crowded environments through technologies like OFDMA (Orthogonal Frequency

Division Multiple Access) and BSS Coloring.
Improved power efficiency for connected devices using Target Wake Time (TWT).



Which of the following statements about the forwarding plane of a switch is false?

  1. Provides high-speed and non-blocking data channels.
  2. Can collect packet statistics.
  3. Can encapsulate and decapsulate packets.
  4. Consists of main control boards and interface boards.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The forwarding plane primarily consists of specialized hardware components such as ASICs (Application- Specific Integrated Circuits) or NPUs (Network Processing Units) that are designed for high-speed packet forwarding. The main control board is part of the control plane, which manages routing and switching decisions, and is separate from the forwarding plane.



Which of the following statements regarding DR/BDR are false? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. In a broadcast network, DR and BDR must be elected. A broadcast network without a DR or BDR cannot operate normally.
  2. All DR others establish neighbor relationships with DR and BDR only.
  3. DR others listen on the multicast address 224.0.0.5.
  4. DR others listen on the network address 224.0.0.6.

Answer(s): A,D

Explanation:

In a broadcast network, DR and BDR must be elected. A broadcast network without a DR or BDR cannot operate normally.
False: While DR and BDR are elected in broadcast networks to optimize OSPF operations, the network can still operate without a DR/BDR. However, without a DR/BDR, OSPF would require full mesh adjacencies among all routers, which is less efficient but functional.
DR others listen on the network address 224.0.0.6.
False: The multicast address 224.0.0.6 is used by the DR and BDR to listen for OSPF messages from DR others, not the other way around.



Which of the following statements regarding router ID in dynamic routing protocols is false?

  1. After a router ID changes, router ID of each protocol will change without requiring additional operations.
  2. If no router ID is manually configured and loopback interface addresses are configured, the largest loopback interface address is used as the router ID.
  3. If a router ID is manually configured using the router-id command, this router ID will be used.
  4. If no router ID and no loopback interface address are configured, the largest physical interface IP address is used as the router I

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In dynamic routing protocols (e.g., OSPF, BGP, IS-IS), the router ID is typically set when the protocol process is initialized.
If the router ID is changed, most protocols (e.g., OSPF or BGP) require the process to be restarted or reloaded for the new router ID to take effect. It does not change automatically across protocols without additional operations.



Which of the following statements regarding OSPF AS-External-LSA are true? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. Net mask is set to all 0s.
  2. Advertising Router is set as the router ID of an ASBR.
  3. Link State ID and Advertising Router can uniquely identify an AS-External-LSA.
  4. Link State ID is set as an address on the destination network segment.

Answer(s): B,C

Explanation:

Advertising Router is set as the router ID of an ASBR.
True: The Advertising Router field in an AS-External-LSA contains the Router ID of the ASBR (Autonomous System Boundary Router) that generated the LSA. This helps in identifying the origin of the external route.

Link State ID and Advertising Router can uniquely identify an AS-External-LSA.
True: In OSPF, the combination of the Link State ID (which represents the external network) and the Advertising Router (the ASBR's router ID) uniquely identifies an AS-External-LSA. This ensures that LSAs are uniquely tracked and processed.



Which of the following statements regarding BGP peer are false? (Choose all that apply.)

  1. BGP peers exchange link state information.
  2. A UDP connection must be established before BGP relationships are established.
  3. BGP routers support automatic neighbor discovery.
  4. BGP peers must be configured with MD5 authentication.

Answer(s): A,B,C

Explanation:

BGP peers exchange link state information.
False: BGP is a path vector protocol, not a link-state protocol. BGP peers exchange prefix reachability information (NLRI) instead of link-state information. This makes BGP suitable for inter-domain routing.
A UDP connection must be established before BGP relationships are established.
False: BGP uses TCP, not UDP. Specifically, BGP establishes a TCP connection on port 179 between peers before exchanging routing information. TCP ensures reliable communication between peers.
BGP routers support automatic neighbor discovery.
False: BGP does not support automatic neighbor discovery like some IGPs (e.g., OSPF or EIGRP). BGP neighbors (peers) must be explicitly configured using the neighbor command with the peer's IP address.



Which of the following statements regarding BGP message types and characteristics is false?

  1. Hello messages are periodically sent between BGP peers to maintain their connection.
  2. Update messages are used to exchange routing information between BGP peers.
  3. Open messages are used to establish a peer relationship between two neighbors.
  4. Notification messages are used to transmit error information between BGP Speakers.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

BGP does not use Hello messages to maintain peer connections. Instead, BGP uses Keepalive messages, which are sent periodically (every 60 seconds by default) to ensure the session remains active. Hello messages are a concept in other protocols like OSPF, not BGP.



PDF
Viewing page 6 of 56

Share your comments for Huawei H12-821_V1.0 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

Anonymous
E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

UNITED KINGDOM
V
vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

i need to pass exam for VMware 2V0-11.25

Anonymous
M
Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

UNITED STATES
O
OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

great dumps to practice for the exam

SOUTH AFRICA
A
Adekunle willaims
6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

How reliable and relevant are these questions?? also i can see the last update here was January and definitely new questions would have emerged.

Anonymous
AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!