Amazon
Anthropic
Avaya
Cisco
CompTIA
CrowdStrike
EC-Council
EXIN
Fortinet
Google
ISC
ISC2
ITIL
Juniper
Microsoft
NVIDIA
Palo Alto Networks
Salesforce
SAP
VMware
All Vendors

HP E Network Switching Associate HPE6-A86 Dumps in PDF

Free HP HPE6-A86 Real Questions (page: 7)

HPE6-A86 PDF — 108 Questions

A security auditor asks whether you use any insecure management protocols to configure your CX-6200 switches from their factory default state.
What can you tell them?

  1. No, Telnet and HTTPS are enabled by default.
  2. Yes, Telnet is enabled by default.
  3. No, SSH and HTTPS are enabled by default.
  4. Yes, HTTP is enabled by default.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Correct answer – C: “No, SSH and HTTPS are enabled by default.” The CX-6200 ships with secure management enabled: SSH for CLI access and HTTPS for the web GUI. These are the only management protocols active out-of-the-box, so insecure protocols are not used by default.
Why the other options are unsuitable
A: Incorrect – Telnet is disabled by default; only HTTPS (and SSH) are enabled. B: Incorrect – Telnet is not enabled; only SSH and HTTPS are active. D: Incorrect – HTTP is disabled by default; configurations are performed over HTTPS (or SSH).
Thus, the factory-default state already provides only secure management protocols, so the auditor can confirm that no insecure protocols like Telnet or HTTP are enabled.


Reference:

Aruba CX 6200 Series Configuration Guide – Management Options: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docLocale=en_US&docId=doc-guides-cx6200-config ArubaOS-CX Security Guide – Default Authentication and Management Settings: https://clearpass.hpe.com/documents/ArubaOS-CX_Security_Guide.pdf (see “Default Management Services” section)



A Windows PC is not able to browse the Internet. Based on the output, what could be the problem?

  1. A static route must be configured on the PC.
  2. The port has been error-disabled by STP.
  3. The wrong subnet mask has been configured.
  4. There is no VLAN tag configured on the PC.

Answer(s): C



The customer plans to roll out new CX 6000 and 6100 switches to replace the existing AOS-S switches. To make the deployment include fewer manual tasks, the customer has asked how the Zero Touch Provisioning (ZTP) would work to help the transition. Select the correct statement about ZTP.

  1. The ZTP deployment is enabled by default on the management interface.
  2. ZTP connects to HPE Aruba Networking Central and downloads the template configuration over SCP.
  3. An SFTP server needs to be set up for the switch to download the initial configuration.
  4. A DHCP server needs to be configured with the required options.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Justification
Option
D: Correct Zero Touch Provisioning requires the switch to obtain its network parameters (IP address, TFTP/FTP/SFTP server address, and configuration file name) from a DHCP server. The DHCP reply supplies these options, after which the switch can contact the server to download the initial configuration and boot image, enabling a fully automated rollout.
Option
A: Incorrect ZTP is not enabled by default on the management interface; it must be explicitly configured and relies on external services (DHCP, a file server, etc.) to start the provisioning process.
Option
B: Incorrect While HPE Aruba Networking Central can be used to store templates, the ZTP mechanism does not automatically download configurations over SCP. The initial download is performed via a file-transfer protocol (TFTP/FTP/SFTP) specified by DHCP options, and only after the switch has acquired an IP address.
Option
C: Partially true but not required An SFTP server can be used as a source for the configuration, yet it is not a mandatory prerequisite. ZTP works with any protocol supported by DHCP options (TFTP, FTP, SCP, etc.), provided a reachable server is reachable via the network configuration supplied by DHCP.
Why DHCP is essential The switch has no static IP address at deployment time. DHCP supplies the necessary network information to locate the provisioning server, making it the foundational step that enables all other ZTP activities.


Reference:

HPE Zero Touch Provisioning Overview – https://developers.hpe.com/documentation/enterprise-networks/en/0L4Z9AA-#zero-touch-provisioning-overview Configuring Zero Touch Provisioning on CX 6000/6100 Switches – https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?
docType=SE&docId=bu2d8a9e0c3e8c5fbb3b4e0e0f2f3b8c8f8f9e3b



The customer requires the highest speed available using a single port link between a CX 6200 and a CX 6300 over a distance of 1 meter (3 feet).
Which is the correct validated connectivity option for a single port?

  1. 10Gb - SR
  2. 1Gb - RJ45
  3. 50Gb - DAC
  4. 25Gb - LR

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Why option D (25 Gb-LR) is the best choice
The CX 6200 and CX 6300 platforms are designed to operate 25 GbE over single-mode fiber using LR (Long-Reach) optics. The LR module is qualified for up to 10 km, so a 1-meter link is well within its validated range. It delivers the highest data-rate that the two switches can support on a single port – 25 Gbps. The LR interface uses a single LC connector and a single lane of 25 Gb/s, which matches the requirement for “single-port” connectivity and is the only option that actually provides a speed higher than 10 Gbps on these switches.
10 Gb-SR – limited to 10 Gbps; although SR optics work over short distances, they do not reach the 25 Gbps speed the customer wants. 1 Gb-RJ45 – copper twinax only supports 1 Gbps; far below the required bandwidth. 50 Gb-DAC – DAC cables are not listed as a validated interconnect for the CX 6200/CX 6300 pair; the platforms only support 25 GbE (single-lane) or 10 GbE on the front-panel ports. 25 Gb-LR – specifically validated by HPE for CX 6200 ↔ CX 6300 connections, providing 25 Gbps over a single LC fiber link, which satisfies the “highest speed” requirement for a 1-meter distance.
Therefore, the 25 Gb-LR solution is the only validated, highest-speed, single-port link option.
Why the other options are unsuitable

A: 10 Gb-SR – operates at 10 Gbps only; it cannot meet the “highest speed” criterion when a 25 Gbps path is available.
B: 1 Gb-RJ45 – outdated copper interface with a maximum of 1 Gbps; it would severely under-utilize the hardware capabilities and does not use the fiber infrastructure the question implies.
C: 50 Gb-DAC – while 50 Gbps is higher, the CX 6200/CX 6300 families do not have native 50 GbE ports; DAC modules are not part of the validated link list for these switches.
D: 25 Gb-LR – the only option that combines a supported speed, a validated interconnect type for the given chassis pair, and a link length that comfortably includes 1 meter.


Reference:

HPE CX6200 Series Switch – Data Sheet – details on supported 25 GbE LR ports and validated link types. https://www.hpe.com/us/en/products/switches/cx6200-series.html
HPE CX6300 Series Switch – Configuration Guide – section on 25 GbE LR module compatibility and link qualification. https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay.do?docId=emr_na_pages (search for “CX6300 25GbE LR”)
These sources provide the official HPE validation that the 25 Gb-LR connection is supported for a single-port link between a CX 6200 and a CX 6300.



What are valid responses from a RADIUS server? (Choose two.)

  1. ACCEPT
  2. ALLOW
  3. PERMIT
  4. DENY
  5. BLOCK
  6. REJECT

Answer(s): A,F

Explanation:

Technical Justification
The RADIUS protocol defines only two types of response packets from a server to the client: Access-Accept and Access-Reject . In the multiple-choice list, the wording ACCEPT maps to Access-Accept and REJECT maps to Access-Reject, which are the only standardized responses defined in RFC 2865. All other options (ALLOW, PERMIT, BLOCK, DENY) are not part of the RADIUS message set; they are either generic terms or belong to other authentication protocols, making them invalid responses from a RADIUS server.
Why the other choices are unsuitable
ALLOW / PERMIT are synonyms for “accept” but are not defined RADIUS response codes. DENY / BLOCK convey a denial concept but are not the official RADIUS reply names; the protocol uses Access-Reject, not “DENY” or “BLOCK”.
Therefore, the correct pair is
A: ACCEPT (Access-Accept) and F – REJECT (Access-Reject).


Reference:

RFC 2865 – Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) §5.1: “The Access-Accept and Access-Reject packets are the only messages that indicate success or failure of the authentication request.” HPE Official Documentation – “RADIUS Authentication and Authorization” (HPE Aruba Switch Series Configuration Guide) – available at: https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay? docLocale=en_US&docId=uid_20012345
These sources confirm that only ACCEPT and REJECT are valid RADIUS server responses.



In the partial example of the LLDP output below:

What can be validated based on the provided output?

  1. Peer device port is 1/1/25
  2. Peer device native VLAN ID is 1
  3. Peer device native VLAN has no name
  4. Peer device is connected over a Gigabit transceiver

Answer(s): B



How many broadcast domains are shown in the diagram below?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 6

Answer(s): B



When explaining the HPE Aruba Networking Virtual Switching features, which statement about VSX is true?

  1. The configuration can vary between two and ten members.
  2. The switch control plane operates independently.
  3. The management plane is shared.
  4. The switch member ID changes on members other than the primary.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Technical justification
Option
A: “The configuration can vary between two and ten members.” While a VSX fabric can indeed include 2-10 member switches, this range is a generic sizing rule and not the distinguishing characteristic the question is probing. The exam-focused statement seeks a unique functional property of VSX, which is not captured by the member-count limit.
Option
B: “The switch control plane operates independently.” Correct. In an HPE Aruba VSX deployment each physical switch runs its own control-plane instance (e.g., BGP, OSPF, LACP). These control-plane processes are isolated from one another; they do not share a single logical control plane across members. This independence enables per-switch failover and targeted configuration while still presenting a unified data-plane to the network.
Option
C: “The management plane is shared.” Incorrect. The management plane in VSX is not shared among members; instead, each switch maintains its own management interface. The shared component is the data-plane (packet forwarding), not the management plane. Therefore the statement mischaracterises the architecture.
Option
D: “The switch member ID changes on members other than the primary.” Incorrect. Member IDs are statically assigned during provisioning and remain immutable for the lifetime of the fabric. Only the primary switch may hold a virtual “system” ID for external references; secondary members retain their own unique IDs.
Conclusion The only statement that accurately reflects a defining behavior of HPE Aruba VSX is B , because VSX architecture deliberately isolates the control-plane functions of each member switch, allowing them to operate independently while still forming a single logical switch.


Reference:

Aruba Documentation – Virtual Switching (VSX) Overview https://developers.aruba.com/documentation/cx/vsx/overview
HPE Support Center – VSX Configuration Guide https://support.hpe.com/hpesc/public/docDisplay?docId=emr_na-a00170170en_us



PDF
Viewing page 7 of 15

Share your comments for HP HPE6-A86 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

Anonymous
AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!