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HP Aruba Certified Campus Access Associate HPE6-A85 Dumps in PDF

Free HP HPE6-A85 Real Questions (page: 5)

HPE6-A85 PDF — 103 Questions

DRAG DROP (Drag and Drop is not supported)
Match the switching technology with the appropriate use case.

  1. See Explanation section for answer.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

USE CASE: a) Controls the dynamic addition and removal of ports to groups
Technology: 3) LACP USE CASE: b) Tags Ethernet frames with an additional VLAN header Technology: 1) 802.1Q USE CASE: c) Used to authenticate EAP-Capable client on a switch port
Technology: 2) 802.1X USE CASE: d) Used to identify a voice VLAN to an IP phone Technology: 4) LLDP The following table summarizes the switching technologies and their use cases:
Technology Use case

802.1Q is a standard that defines how to create and manage virtual LANs (VLANs) on a network. VLANs allow network administrators to logically segment a network into different broadcast domains, improving security, performance, and manageability. 802.1Q tags Ethernet frames with an additional VLAN header that
1) 802.1Q contains a VLAN identifier (VID), which indicates which VLAN the frame belongs to 1.802.1X is a standard that defines how to provide port-based network access control (PNAC) on a network. PNAC allows network administrators to authenticate and authorize devices before granting them access to network resources. 802.1X uses the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) to exchange authentication messages between a supplicant (a device that wants to access the network), an authenticator (a device that controls access to the network, such as a switch), and an authentication server (a device that verifies the 2) 802.1X credentials of the supplicant, such as a RADIUS server)
2) LACP stands for Link Aggregation Control Protocol, which is part of the IEEE 802.3ad standard that defines how to bundle multiple physical links into a single logical link, also known as a link aggregation group (LAG) or an EtherChannel. LAGs provide increased bandwidth, load balancing, and redundancy for network connections. LACP controls the dynamic addition and removal of ports to groups, ensuring that only ports
3) LACP with compatible configurations can form a LAG.

LLDP stands for Link Layer Discovery Protocol, which is part of the IEEE 802.1AB standard that defines how to discover and advertise information about neighboring devices on a network. LLDP operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model and uses TLVs (type-length-value) to exchange information such as device name, port number, VLAN ID, capabilities, and power requirements. LLDP can be used to identify a voice VLAN to an IP phone by
4) LLDP sending a TLV that contains the voice VLAN ID and priority.


Reference:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1Q
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IEEE_802.1 X 3 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Link_aggregation https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Link_Layer_Discovery_Protocol



Which commands are used to set a default route to 10.4.5.1 on an Aruba CX switch when ln-band management using an SVl is being used?

  1. iP default-gateway 10.4.5.1
  2. ip route 0 0 0.070 10.4 5.1 vrf mgmt
  3. ip route 0.0 0 0/0 10.4.5.1
  4. default-gateway 10.4.5.1

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The command that is used to set a default route to 10.4.5.1 on an Aruba CX switch when in-band management using an SVI is being used is ip route 0.0 0 0/0 10.4.5.1 . This command specifies the destination network address (0.0 0 0) and prefix length (/0) and the next-hop address (10.4.5.1) for reaching any network that is not directly connected to the switch. The default route applies to the default VRF Virtual Routing and Forwarding. VRF is a technology that allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router at the same time. VRFs are typically used to segment network traffic for security, privacy, or administrative purposes. , which is used for in-band management traffic that goes through an SVI Switch Virtual Interface. SVI is a virtual interface on a switch that allows the switch to route packets between different VLANs on the same switch or different switches that are connected by a trunk link. An SVI is associated with a VLAN and has an IP address and subnet mask assigned to it.


Reference:

https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10_08/HTML/ip_route_4100i- 6000-6100-6200/Content/Chp_StatRoute/def-rou.htm
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/AOS-CX/10_08/HTML/ip_route_4100i-6000- 6100-6200/Content/Chp_VRF/vrf-overview.htm



Two independent ArubaOS-CX 6300 switches with Spanning Tree (STP) settings are interconnected with two cables between ports 1/1/1 and 1/1/2 All four ports have "no shutdown" and "no routing" commands.
How will STP forward or discard traffic on these ports?

  1. The switch with the lower MAC address will forward on both ports, while the switch with the higher MAC address will forward on both ports
  2. The switch with the lower MAC address will forward on both ports, while the switch with the higher MAC address will discard on one port
  3. The switch with the lower MAC address will discard on one port, while the switch with the higher MAC address will forward on both ports
  4. The switch with the lower MAC address will discard on one port, while the switch with the higher MAC address will discard on one port

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The way that STP Spanning Tree Protocol. STP is a network protocol that ensures a loop-free topology for any bridged Ethernet local area network by preventing redundant paths between switches or bridges from creating loops that cause broadcast storms, multiple frame transmission, and MAC table instability. STP creates a logical tree structure that spans all of the switches in an extended network and blocks any redundant links that are not part of the tree from forwarding data packets. will forward or discard traffic on these ports is as follows:
STP will elect a root bridge among the two switches based on their bridge IDs, which are composed of a priority value and a MAC address. The switch with the lower bridge ID will become the root bridge and will forward traffic on all its ports.
STP will assign a role and a state to each port on both switches based on their port IDs, which are composed of a priority value and a port number. The port with the lower port ID will become the designated port and will forward traffic, while the port with the higher port ID will become the alternate port and will discard traffic.
In this scenario, since both switches have two cables connected between ports 1/1/1 and 1/1/2, there will be two possible paths between them, creating a loop. To prevent this loop, STP will block one of these paths by discarding traffic on one of the ports on each switch. Assuming that both switches have the same priority value (default is 32768), the switch with the lower MAC address will have the lower bridge ID and will become the root bridge. The root bridge will forward traffic on both ports 1/1/1 and 1/1/2.
Assuming that both ports have the same priority value (default is 128), port 1/1/1 will have a lower port ID than port 1/1/2 on both switches because it has a lower port number. Port 1/1/1 will become the designated port and will forward traffic, while port 1/1/2 will become the alternate port and will discard traffic.
Therefore, the switch with the lower MAC address will discard traffic on one port (port 1/1/2), while the switch with the higher MAC address will also discard traffic on one port (port 1/1/2).


Reference:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spanning_Tree_Protocol



What are the main characteristics of the 6 GHz band?

  1. Less RF signal is absorb by objects in a 6 GHz WLAN.
  2. In North America, the 6 GHz band offers more 80 MHz channels than there are 40 MHz channels in the 5 GHz band.
  3. The 6 GHz band is fully backward compatible with the existing bands.
  4. Low Power Devices are allowed for indoor and outdoor usage.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The main characteristic of the 6 GHz band that is true among the given options is that in North America, the 6 GHz band offers more 80 MHz channels than there are 40 MHz channels in the 5 GHz band. This characteristic provides more spectrum availability, less interference, and higher throughput for wireless devices that support Wi-Fi 6E Wi-Fi Enhanced (Wi-Fi 6E) is an extension of Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) standard that operates in the newly available unlicensed frequency spectrum around 6 GHz in addition to existing bands below it. Some facts about this characteristic are:
In North America, there are up to seven non-overlapping channels available in each of three channel widths (20 MHz, 40 MHz, and 80 MHz) in the entire unlicensed portion of the new spectrum (5925­ 7125 MHz). This means there are up to 21 non-overlapping channels available for Wi-Fi devices in total.
In comparison, in North America, there are only nine non-overlapping channels available in each of two channel widths (20 MHz and 40 MHz) in the entire unlicensed portion of the existing spectrum below it (2400­2483 MHz and 5150­5825 MHz). This means there are only up to nine non- overlapping channels available for Wi-Fi devices in total. Therefore, in North America, there are more than twice as many non-overlapping channels available in each channel width in the new spectrum than in the existing spectrum below it. Specifically, there are more than twice as many non-overlapping channels available at 80 MHz width (seven) than at 40 MHz width (three) in the existing spectrum below it.
The other options are not true because:
Less RF signal is absorbed by objects in a 6 GHz WLAN: This option is false because higher frequency signals tend to be more absorbed by objects than lower frequency signals due to higher attenuation Attenuation is a general term that refers to any reduction in signal strength during transmission over distance or through an object or medium . Therefore, RF signals in a 6 GHz WLAN would be more absorbed by objects than RF signals in a lower frequency WLAN. The 6 GHz band is fully backward compatible with existing bands: This option is false because Wi-Fi devices need to support Wi-Fi 6E standard to operate in the new spectrum around 6 GHz . Existing Wi-Fi devices that do not support Wi-Fi 6E standard cannot use this spectrum and can only operate in existing bands below it.
Low Power Devices are allowed for indoor and outdoor usage: This option is false because Low Power Indoor Devices (LPI) are only allowed for indoor usage under certain power limits and registration requirements . Outdoor usage of LPI devices is prohibited by regulatory authorities such as FCC Federal Communications Commission (FCC) is an independent agency of United States government that regulates communications by radio, television, wire, satellite, and cable across United States . However, outdoor usage of Very Low Power Devices (VLP) may be allowed under certain power limits and without registration requirements.


Reference:

https://www.wi-fi.org/discover-wi-fi/wi-fi-certified-6e https://www.wi-fi.org/file/wi-fi- alliance-spectrum-needs-study https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/spectrum-expert-wi- fi/prod_white_paper0900aecd807395a9.html https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/82068-power- levels.html https://www.wi-fi.org/file/wi-fi-alliance-unlicensed-spectrum-in-the-us



A hospital uses a lot of mobile equipment for the diagnosis and documentation of patient data What Is the ideal access switch for this large hospital with distribution racks of over 400 ports in a single VSF stack?

  1. CX 6300
  2. OCX 6400
  3. OCX 6200
  4. OCX 6100

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The ideal access switch for a large hospital with distribution racks of over 400 ports in a single VSF stack is the CX 6300. This switch provides the following benefits:
The CX 6300 supports up to 48 ports per switch and up to 10 switches per VSF stack, allowing for a total of 480 ports in a single stack. This meets the requirement of having over 400 ports in a single VSF stack.
The CX 6300 supports high-performance switching with up to 960 Gbps of switching capacity and up to 714 Mpps of forwarding rate. This meets the requirement of having high throughput and low latency for mobile equipment and patient data.
The CX 6300 supports advanced features such as dynamic segmentation, policy-based routing, and role-based access control. These features enhance the security and flexibility of the network by applying different policies and roles to different types of devices and users. The CX 6300 supports Aruba NetEdit, a network configuration and orchestration tool that simplifies the management and automation of the network. This reduces the complexity and human errors involved in network configuration and maintenance.
The other options are not ideal because:
OCX 6400: This switch is designed for data center applications and does not support VSF stacking. It also does not support dynamic segmentation or policy-based routing, which are useful for network security and flexibility.
OCX 6200: This switch is designed for small to medium-sized businesses and does not support VSF stacking. It also has lower switching capacity and forwarding rate than the CX 6300, which may affect the performance of the network.
OCX 6100: This switch is designed for edge applications and does not support VSF stacking. It also has lower switching capacity and forwarding rate than the CX 6300, which may affect the performance of the network.


Reference:

https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_CX6300Series.pdf https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_OC6400Series.pdf https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_OC6200Series.pdf https://www.arubanetworks.com/assets/ds/DS_OC6100Series.pdf



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

Anonymous
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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

UNITED KINGDOM
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