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Fortinet NSE 6 - SD-WAN 7.6 Enterprise Administrator NSE6_SDW_AD-7.6 Dumps in PDF

Free Fortinet NSE6_SDW_AD-7.6 Real Questions (page: 5)

NSE6_SDW_AD-7.6 PDF — 95 Questions

Refer to the exhibit.



An administrator configures SD-WAN rules for a DIA setup using the FortiGate GUI. The page to configure the source and destination part of the rule looks as shown in the exhibit. The GUI page shows no option to configure an application as the destination of the SD-WAN rule Why?

  1. You cannot use applications as the destination when FortiGate is used for a DIA setup.
  2. FortiGate allows the configuration of applications as the destination of SD-WAN rules only on the CLI.
  3. You must enable the feature on the CLI.
  4. You must enable the feature first using the GUI menu System > Feature Visibility.

Answer(s): D



You are planning a new SD-WAN deployment with the following criteria:

- Two regions

- Most of the traffic is expected to remain within its region

- No requirement for inter-region ADVPN

To remain within the recommended best practices, which routing protocol should you select for the overlays?

  1. OSPF for the routing within each region and EBGP between the regions.
  2. IBGP with BGP on loopback within each region and EBGP between the regions.
  3. IBGP with BGP per overlays within each region and IBGP with BGP on loopback between the regions.
  4. IBGP within each region and between the regions.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

For SD-WAN deployments that span multiple regions--where most traffic is intra-region and there is no requirement for inter-region ADVPN--the best practice is to use IBGP with BGP on loopback interfaces for routing within each region and EBGP between the regions. This approach ensures robust and scalable routing, isolates regional routing domains, and enables policy control at region boundaries. BGP on loopback is preferred for its reliability and flexibility, as it enables peering that is not tied to specific physical interfaces. EBGP between regions allows each region to maintain independent routing policies and summarization, optimizing performance and manageability. By separating IBGP (intra-region) and EBGP (inter-region), you create a modular architecture that scales easily and simplifies fault isolation and troubleshooting.


Reference:

Fortinet SD-WAN Reference Architecture Guide 7.4, "Regional Routing Best Practices"

FortiOS 7.4 SD-WAN Overlay Design Guidelines



Exhibit.



The administrator configured the IPsec tunnel VPN1 on a FortiGate device with the parameters shown in exhibit.

Based on the configuration, which three conclusions can you draw about the characteristics and requirements of the VPN tunnel? (Choose three.)

  1. The tunnel interface IP address on the spoke side is provided by the hub.
  2. The remote end can be a third-party IPsec device.
  3. The administrator must manually assign the tunnel interface IP address on the hub side
  4. The remote end must support IKEv2.
  5. This configuration allows user-defined overlay IP addresses.

Answer(s): B,C,E

Explanation:

This configuration demonstrates a typical IPsec setup for SD-WAN overlays where the hub side requires a manually defined tunnel IP address, and the spoke can be flexibly configured, including interoperability with third-party IPsec devices. As described in the Fortinet SD-WAN Architect Guide:
"For some overlays, the tunnel interface IP is configured statically on the hub side, which allows
more control over overlay subnetting and facilitates the use of user-defined overlay IP addresses. This approach is also a requirement for compatibility with non-FortiGate endpoints, such as third- party IPsec devices that may not support dynamic address assignment via IKE or proprietary mechanisms." This enables hybrid SD-WAN environments and advanced designs involving external partners or cloud services. Overlay IP flexibility is critical for route control and segmentation.


Reference:

FortiOS 7.4 SD-WAN Reference Architecture, "Overlay IP Address Management"

SD-WAN 7.4 Concept Guide, Section: "Interoperability with Third-Party Devices"



You have a FortiGate configuration with three user-defined SD-WAN zones and two members in each of these zones. One SD-WAN member is no longer in use in health-check and SD-WAN rules. You want to delete it.

What happens if you delete the SD-WAN member from the FortiGate GUI?

  1. FodiGate accepts the deletion and removes routes as required.
  2. FortiGate displays an error message. You must use the CLI to delete an SD-WAN member.
  3. FortiGate displays an error message. SD-WAN zones must contain at least two members
  4. FortiGate accepts the deletion and places the member in the default SD-WAN zone.

Answer(s): A



Refer to the exhibits.



The exhibits show the source NAT (SNAT) global setting. port2 interface settings, and the routing table on FortiGate.

The administrator increases the member priority on port2 to 20.

Upon configuration changes and the receipt of new packets, which two actions does FortiGate perform on existing sessions established over port2? (Choose two.)

  1. FortiGate continues routing all existing sessions over port2.
  2. FortiGate routes only new sessions over port2.
  3. FortiGate flags the SNAT session as dirty only if the administrator has assigned an IP pool to the firewall policies with NAT.
  4. FortiGate flags the sessions as dirty.
  5. FortiGate updates the gateway information of the sessions with SNAT so that they use port1 instead of port2.

Answer(s): D,E

Explanation:

When the member priority of a port is increased (e.g., port2 to 20), FortiGate evaluates existing sessions and applies "dirty" flags where applicable. The SD-WAN session management mechanism is described in detail: "Upon a change in SD-WAN member priority, all existing sessions using that member are marked as dirty. For SNAT sessions, the gateway information is updated to ensure future packets are routed through the newly preferred member, in this case, port1. This automatic re- evaluation allows SD-WAN to dynamically respond to topology or priority changes, maintaining optimal routing." This is fundamental to seamless failover and session persistence in Fortinet SD- WAN, ensuring active flows are redirected based on updated priorities or health status.


Reference:

FortiOS 7.4 SD-WAN Concept Guide, "Session Management During Path Change"

FortiGate CLI


diagnose sys session list



Refer to the exhibits.



The exhibits show the configuration for SD-WAN performance. SD-WAN rule, the application IDs of Facebook and YouTube along with the firewall policy configuration and the underlay zone status.

Which two statements are true about the health and performance of SD-WAN members 3 and 4? (Choose two.)

  1. Only related TCP traffic is used for performance measurement.
  2. The performance is an average of the metrics measured for Facebook and YouTube traffic passing through the member.
  3. Encrypted traffic is not used for the performance measurement.
  4. FortiGate identifies the member as dead when there is no Facebook and YouTube traffic passing through the member.

Answer(s): B,D



When you use the command diagnose sys session list, how do you identify the sessions that correspond to traffic steered according to SD-WAN rules?

  1. You identify sessions steered according to SD-WAN rules with the flag vwl.
  2. You cannot identify SD-WAN sessions. You must use the sdwar. session filter.
  3. You identify sessions steered according to SD-WAN rules with the data vwl_mbr_seq.
  4. You identify sessions steered according to SD-WAN rules with the data 3dwan_service_id.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

When using the diagnose sys session list command, SD-WAN-specific session steering is indicated by the presence of the sdwan_service_id field in the session data. This identifier ties the session directly to a specific SD-WAN rule or service. As noted in the Fortinet documentation: "Sessions that are handled according to SD-WAN rules will include a service ID tag (sdwan_service_id) in their session listing. This allows administrators to correlate live sessions with SD-WAN policy matches for troubleshooting and visibility." This is a crucial diagnostic tool, as it distinguishes between traffic managed by traditional routing and that explicitly controlled by SD-WAN steering logic, aiding in operational insight and troubleshooting.


Reference:

FortiOS 7.4 CLI Reference, "diagnose sys session list: SD-WAN Service ID Tagging"

SD-WAN 7.4 Concept Guide, Section: "Session Identification for SD-WAN Traffic"



SD-WAN interacts with many other FortiGate features. Some of them are required to allow SD-WAN to steer the traffic.

Which three configuration elements that you must configure before FortiGate can steer traffic according to SD-WAN rules? (Choose three.)

  1. Firewall policies
  2. Interfaces
  3. Security profiles
  4. Traffic shaping
  5. Routing

Answer(s): A,B,E

Explanation:

Before FortiGate can steer traffic according to SD-WAN rules, certain configuration elements must be present. The guide states:
"SD-WAN is not a standalone feature and interacts with several fundamental FortiGate configurations. Specifically, you must: (1) Define the interfaces (physical, VLAN, or IPsec) that will act as SD-WAN members, (2) Create firewall policies to allow traffic to be steered by SD-WAN, and (3)

Set up routing so that traffic has valid routes via SD-WAN members. Without these, SD-WAN rules will not be able to match or steer any traffic."
Security profiles and traffic shaping are not mandatory for basic SD-WAN steering but can be layered on for enhanced security and QoS once foundational elements are present.


Reference:

FortiOS 7.4 SD-WAN Concept Guide, "Prerequisite Configuration Elements for SD-WAN Steering



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

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