Amazon
Anthropic
Avaya
Cisco
CompTIA
CrowdStrike
EC-Council
EXIN
Fortinet
Google
ISC
ISC2
ITIL
Juniper
Microsoft
NVIDIA
Okta
Palo Alto Networks
Salesforce
SAP
All Vendors

CSI Canadian Securities Course 2 CSC2 Dumps in PDF

Free CSI CSC2 Real Questions (page: 6)

CSC2 PDF — 185 Questions

How can an analyst use trend analysis to analyze a company's financial statements?

  1. Computer the company's current ratios with its ratios from prior years to determine a trend.
  2. Review the company's ratio over the past year, as they provide the best estimate of near-term performance and future trends.
  3. Identity trends by selecting the lowest ratio for the base year, even if a loss is experienced, as it represents a good starting point for analyzing the growth in the ratios.
  4. Analyze the ratios against companies in a wide a range of industries to see how the company is trending in the current economic cycle.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Trend analysis involves comparing a company's financial ratios or metrics over several periods to identify patterns or changes that may indicate performance trends. This approach is essential for evaluating a company's financial health over time and detecting improvements or declines in critical financial metrics.

By analyzing the current ratios--which measure liquidity and the company's ability to cover short- term obligations--with data from prior years, an analyst can determine trends such as increasing efficiency, solvency, or potential financial stress. This method provides meaningful insights into a company's financial trajectory, supporting better decision-making.

Option B and C are incorrect because they either limit the analysis to a short timeframe or ignore the significance of using a stable and representative base year. Option D deviates from the principle of selecting relevant industry peers.


Reference:

Volume 2, Chapter 14: Company Analysis, Trend Analysis, Canadian Securities Course.



What do technical analysis and fundamental analysis have in common?

  1. They compare the intrinsic value against a security's current price.
  2. They are nullified a according to the random walk theory.
  3. They are used to predict changes in security prices.
  4. They study the causes of security' s price movements.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Both technical analysis and fundamental analysis are tools used to predict changes in security prices, but they differ significantly in their approaches.

Fundamental Analysis evaluates the intrinsic value of a security by analyzing factors such as a company's financial statements, industry conditions, and macroeconomic trends. It assumes that market prices will eventually reflect a security's true value.

Technical Analysis examines historical price and volume data to predict future price movements. It focuses on identifying patterns, trends, and market sentiment without regard to the underlying fundamentals.

Option A is incorrect because it only describes fundamental analysis. Option B erroneously connects both methodologies to the random walk theory, which discounts their effectiveness. Option D misstates their purpose, as technical analysis focuses on price trends, not the causes of price movements.


Reference:

Volume 2, Chapter 13: Fundamental and Technical Analysis, Overview of Fundamental and Technical Analysis, Canadian Securities Course.



What type of return is adjusted for inflation?

  1. Ex-ante
  2. Nominal
  3. Ex-post
  4. Real

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The real rate of return refers to the return on an investment adjusted for the effects of inflation. Unlike nominal return, which reflects the raw return of an investment without considering inflation, the real return provides a clearer measure of an investment's actual purchasing power.

Formula for Real Rate of Return:

The formula for calculating real rate of return is:
RealReturn=NominalReturn-InflationRate\text{Real Return} = \text{Nominal Return} - \text{Inflation Rate}RealReturn=NominalReturn-InflationRate

For example, if an investment generates a nominal return of 5% and inflation during the period is 2%, the real return would be 3% (5% - 2%).

Explanation of Options:

A . Ex-ante: Refers to a forecasted return, not necessarily adjusted for inflation.

B . Nominal: Measures the raw return without accounting for inflation.

C . Ex-post: Refers to a return based on historical data, which can be nominal or real.

D . Real: The correct answer, as it specifically accounts for inflation to measure the actual growth in purchasing power.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 15: Real Returns and the Effect of Inflation, which explains the difference between real and nominal rates of return and their application in investment analysis.



Which type of ETF is also referred to as smart beta ETF?

  1. Rules-based
  2. Standard
  3. Synthetic
  4. Index-based

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Rules-based ETFs, also known as smart beta ETFs, use predetermined rules or algorithms to select and weight securities in their portfolios. These ETFs aim to outperform traditional market- capitalization-weighted ETFs by targeting specific factors such as value, momentum, quality, or volatility.

Characteristics of Smart Beta ETFs:

Strategic Factor Weighting: Securities are weighted based on fundamental or quantitative factors, not just market capitalization.

Higher Returns Potential: These ETFs are designed to capture excess returns (alpha) relative to a benchmark.

Lower Costs: Smart beta strategies often combine active and passive management elements at a lower cost than traditional active funds.

Explanation of Options:

A . Rules-based: Correct answer. Smart beta ETFs are built on rule-based frameworks designed to achieve specific investment objectives.

B . Standard: Refers to traditional, market-cap-weighted ETFs, not smart beta.

C . Synthetic: Refers to ETFs that use derivatives to replicate returns of an underlying index, unrelated to smart beta.

D . Index-based: Includes standard ETFs tracking an index but does not apply specifically to smart beta.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 19: Smart Beta and Rules-Based ETFs, which describes their unique features,

benefits, and strategies.



Which type of sell side equity revenue is earned when a dealer acts in the capacity of an agent in clients trade?

  1. Fees
  2. Spreads
  3. Interest
  4. Commission

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In the context of sell-side equity revenue, when a dealer acts as an agent for a client's trade, the revenue is typically earned as a commission. The dealer facilitates the trade between buyers and sellers without taking ownership of the securities, earning fees for providing this service.

Types of Revenue in Sell-Side Trading:

Commission: Earned when the dealer acts as an agent.

Spreads: Earned when the dealer acts as a principal, buying securities at one price and selling at a higher price.

Fees: Charged for additional services, such as research or analytics.

Interest: Earned from financing activities or margin accounts, not directly tied to trading.

Explanation of Options:

A . Fees: Incorrect; fees are typically charged for services, not for acting as an agent.

B . Spreads: Incorrect; spreads are earned when the dealer acts as a principal.

C . Interest: Incorrect; interest revenue is unrelated to acting as an agent.

D . Commission: Correct answer. Acting as an agent involves earning commissions for facilitating trades.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 27: The Role of Sell-Side Dealers, which details revenue models in institutional and retail trading.



Franco purchased an ETF in his non-registered account, and his total adjusted cost base in year 1 was $30,000. The ETF distributes income each year. And this reinvested distribution total was $1,750. The ETF also distributes a return of capital of $850.
What would Franco's total capital gain be if the sold the ETF for $39,000?

  1. $,250
  2. $8,100
  3. $6,400
  4. $9,000

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

To calculate Franco's total capital gain, we adjust the adjusted cost base (ACB) for reinvested distributions and return of capital (ROC).

Step-by-Step Calculation:

Initial ACB: $30,000.

Add Reinvested Distributions: Reinvested distributions increase the ACB. 30,000+1,750=31,75030,000 + 1,750 = 31,75030,000+1,750=31,750

Subtract Return of Capital: ROC reduces the ACB.
31,750-850=30,90031,750 - 850 = 30,90031,750-850=30,900

Calculate the Capital Gain: Subtract the adjusted ACB from the sale price. 39,000-30,900=8,10039,000 - 30,900 = 8,10039,000-30,900=8,100

Explanation of Options:

A . $1,250: Incorrect, likely a miscalculation of adjusted ACB.

B . $8,100: Correct, based on accurate ACB adjustments and sale price.

C . $6,400: Incorrect, ignores reinvested distributions.

D . $9,000: Incorrect, ignores the impact of ROC adjustments on ACB.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 19: Adjusted Cost Base Calculations, which explains the impact of reinvested distributions and ROC on capital gains.



Which investor right must be disclosed in a Fund Fact document?

  1. Investors have the right to rescind the purchase if these is misrepresentation in the document.
  2. Investors have a right to withdrawal from their purchase within 24 hours after confirmation of the purchase is received.
  3. Investors can request a paper copy of the simplified prospectus for a small charge.
  4. Investors have the right to act or claim damages without any limitation.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The Fund Facts document is a regulatory disclosure document provided to mutual fund investors in Canada. It aims to provide clear, concise, and relevant information about the fund. One critical investor right disclosed in this document is the right to rescind their purchase if there is any misrepresentation in the document. This ensures transparency and legal protection for investors.

Explanation of Options:

A . Rescission Due to Misrepresentation: Correct. If the document contains false or misleading statements, investors can rescind the purchase under securities laws.

B . 24-Hour Withdrawal Right: Incorrect. This is not a standard right for mutual fund purchases; the withdrawal right period is generally within two business days after receiving the trade confirmation.

C . Requesting a Simplified Prospectus: While investors can request this document, the Fund Facts specifically focuses on investor rights related to rescission and misrepresentation.

D . Claiming Damages Without Limitation: Incorrect. Claims for damages are subject to limitations under securities law and are not unrestricted.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 17: Fund Facts and regulatory disclosures.



What responsibility falls on the buy-side portfolio manager?

  1. To busy securities in the market on demand to maintain liquidity in a security.
  2. To maintain constant contact with the investment dealer counterparties.
  3. To inform the trade about the market conditions and risks.
  4. To provide pertinent market information to the department heads of various asset classes.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The buy-side portfolio manager is responsible for managing investments on behalf of institutional or retail clients. A critical responsibility is to provide the buy-side trader with pertinent market information and analysis of risks to ensure that trades are executed effectively and aligned with the investment strategy.

Explanation of Options:

A . Maintain Liquidity: Incorrect. This is more relevant to market makers or sell-side dealers who provide liquidity in the market.

B . Contact with Dealers: Incorrect.
While buy-side managers interact with dealers, their primary role is to strategize, not to maintain constant contact.

C . Informing Traders: Correct. Buy-side managers analyze risks and market conditions and pass this information to traders for execution.

D . Provide Information to Department Heads: Incorrect. This is not a core responsibility of buy-side portfolio managers.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 27: Responsibilities of buy-side portfolio managers and their interactions with traders.



PDF
Viewing page 6 of 25

Share your comments for CSI CSC2 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!