CSI CSC2 Exam (page: 5)
CSI Canadian Securities Course 2
Updated on: 24-Mar-2026

Viewing Page 5 of 25

How can an analyst use trend analysis to analyze a company's financial statements?

  1. Computer the company's current ratios with its ratios from prior years to determine a trend.
  2. Review the company's ratio over the past year, as they provide the best estimate of near-term performance and future trends.
  3. Identity trends by selecting the lowest ratio for the base year, even if a loss is experienced, as it represents a good starting point for analyzing the growth in the ratios.
  4. Analyze the ratios against companies in a wide a range of industries to see how the company is trending in the current economic cycle.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Trend analysis involves comparing a company's financial ratios or metrics over several periods to identify patterns or changes that may indicate performance trends. This approach is essential for evaluating a company's financial health over time and detecting improvements or declines in critical financial metrics.

By analyzing the current ratios--which measure liquidity and the company's ability to cover short- term obligations--with data from prior years, an analyst can determine trends such as increasing efficiency, solvency, or potential financial stress. This method provides meaningful insights into a company's financial trajectory, supporting better decision-making.

Option B and C are incorrect because they either limit the analysis to a short timeframe or ignore the significance of using a stable and representative base year. Option D deviates from the principle of selecting relevant industry peers.


Reference:

Volume 2, Chapter 14: Company Analysis, Trend Analysis, Canadian Securities Course.



What do technical analysis and fundamental analysis have in common?

  1. They compare the intrinsic value against a security's current price.
  2. They are nullified a according to the random walk theory.
  3. They are used to predict changes in security prices.
  4. They study the causes of security' s price movements.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Both technical analysis and fundamental analysis are tools used to predict changes in security prices, but they differ significantly in their approaches.

Fundamental Analysis evaluates the intrinsic value of a security by analyzing factors such as a company's financial statements, industry conditions, and macroeconomic trends. It assumes that market prices will eventually reflect a security's true value.

Technical Analysis examines historical price and volume data to predict future price movements. It focuses on identifying patterns, trends, and market sentiment without regard to the underlying fundamentals.

Option A is incorrect because it only describes fundamental analysis. Option B erroneously connects both methodologies to the random walk theory, which discounts their effectiveness. Option D misstates their purpose, as technical analysis focuses on price trends, not the causes of price movements.


Reference:

Volume 2, Chapter 13: Fundamental and Technical Analysis, Overview of Fundamental and Technical Analysis, Canadian Securities Course.



What type of return is adjusted for inflation?

  1. Ex-ante
  2. Nominal
  3. Ex-post
  4. Real

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The real rate of return refers to the return on an investment adjusted for the effects of inflation. Unlike nominal return, which reflects the raw return of an investment without considering inflation, the real return provides a clearer measure of an investment's actual purchasing power.

Formula for Real Rate of Return:

The formula for calculating real rate of return is:
RealReturn=NominalReturn-InflationRate\text{Real Return} = \text{Nominal Return} - \text{Inflation Rate}RealReturn=NominalReturn-InflationRate

For example, if an investment generates a nominal return of 5% and inflation during the period is 2%, the real return would be 3% (5% - 2%).

Explanation of Options:

A . Ex-ante: Refers to a forecasted return, not necessarily adjusted for inflation.

B . Nominal: Measures the raw return without accounting for inflation.

C . Ex-post: Refers to a return based on historical data, which can be nominal or real.

D . Real: The correct answer, as it specifically accounts for inflation to measure the actual growth in purchasing power.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 15: Real Returns and the Effect of Inflation, which explains the difference between real and nominal rates of return and their application in investment analysis.



Which type of ETF is also referred to as smart beta ETF?

  1. Rules-based
  2. Standard
  3. Synthetic
  4. Index-based

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Rules-based ETFs, also known as smart beta ETFs, use predetermined rules or algorithms to select and weight securities in their portfolios. These ETFs aim to outperform traditional market- capitalization-weighted ETFs by targeting specific factors such as value, momentum, quality, or volatility.

Characteristics of Smart Beta ETFs:

Strategic Factor Weighting: Securities are weighted based on fundamental or quantitative factors, not just market capitalization.

Higher Returns Potential: These ETFs are designed to capture excess returns (alpha) relative to a benchmark.

Lower Costs: Smart beta strategies often combine active and passive management elements at a lower cost than traditional active funds.

Explanation of Options:

A . Rules-based: Correct answer. Smart beta ETFs are built on rule-based frameworks designed to achieve specific investment objectives.

B . Standard: Refers to traditional, market-cap-weighted ETFs, not smart beta.

C . Synthetic: Refers to ETFs that use derivatives to replicate returns of an underlying index, unrelated to smart beta.

D . Index-based: Includes standard ETFs tracking an index but does not apply specifically to smart beta.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 19: Smart Beta and Rules-Based ETFs, which describes their unique features,

benefits, and strategies.



Which type of sell side equity revenue is earned when a dealer acts in the capacity of an agent in clients trade?

  1. Fees
  2. Spreads
  3. Interest
  4. Commission

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In the context of sell-side equity revenue, when a dealer acts as an agent for a client's trade, the revenue is typically earned as a commission. The dealer facilitates the trade between buyers and sellers without taking ownership of the securities, earning fees for providing this service.

Types of Revenue in Sell-Side Trading:

Commission: Earned when the dealer acts as an agent.

Spreads: Earned when the dealer acts as a principal, buying securities at one price and selling at a higher price.

Fees: Charged for additional services, such as research or analytics.

Interest: Earned from financing activities or margin accounts, not directly tied to trading.

Explanation of Options:

A . Fees: Incorrect; fees are typically charged for services, not for acting as an agent.

B . Spreads: Incorrect; spreads are earned when the dealer acts as a principal.

C . Interest: Incorrect; interest revenue is unrelated to acting as an agent.

D . Commission: Correct answer. Acting as an agent involves earning commissions for facilitating trades.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 27: The Role of Sell-Side Dealers, which details revenue models in institutional and retail trading.



Franco purchased an ETF in his non-registered account, and his total adjusted cost base in year 1 was $30,000. The ETF distributes income each year. And this reinvested distribution total was $1,750. The ETF also distributes a return of capital of $850.
What would Franco's total capital gain be if the sold the ETF for $39,000?

  1. $,250
  2. $8,100
  3. $6,400
  4. $9,000

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

To calculate Franco's total capital gain, we adjust the adjusted cost base (ACB) for reinvested distributions and return of capital (ROC).

Step-by-Step Calculation:

Initial ACB: $30,000.

Add Reinvested Distributions: Reinvested distributions increase the ACB. 30,000+1,750=31,75030,000 + 1,750 = 31,75030,000+1,750=31,750

Subtract Return of Capital: ROC reduces the ACB.
31,750-850=30,90031,750 - 850 = 30,90031,750-850=30,900

Calculate the Capital Gain: Subtract the adjusted ACB from the sale price. 39,000-30,900=8,10039,000 - 30,900 = 8,10039,000-30,900=8,100

Explanation of Options:

A . $1,250: Incorrect, likely a miscalculation of adjusted ACB.

B . $8,100: Correct, based on accurate ACB adjustments and sale price.

C . $6,400: Incorrect, ignores reinvested distributions.

D . $9,000: Incorrect, ignores the impact of ROC adjustments on ACB.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 19: Adjusted Cost Base Calculations, which explains the impact of reinvested distributions and ROC on capital gains.



Which investor right must be disclosed in a Fund Fact document?

  1. Investors have the right to rescind the purchase if these is misrepresentation in the document.
  2. Investors have a right to withdrawal from their purchase within 24 hours after confirmation of the purchase is received.
  3. Investors can request a paper copy of the simplified prospectus for a small charge.
  4. Investors have the right to act or claim damages without any limitation.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The Fund Facts document is a regulatory disclosure document provided to mutual fund investors in Canada. It aims to provide clear, concise, and relevant information about the fund. One critical investor right disclosed in this document is the right to rescind their purchase if there is any misrepresentation in the document. This ensures transparency and legal protection for investors.

Explanation of Options:

A . Rescission Due to Misrepresentation: Correct. If the document contains false or misleading statements, investors can rescind the purchase under securities laws.

B . 24-Hour Withdrawal Right: Incorrect. This is not a standard right for mutual fund purchases; the withdrawal right period is generally within two business days after receiving the trade confirmation.

C . Requesting a Simplified Prospectus: While investors can request this document, the Fund Facts specifically focuses on investor rights related to rescission and misrepresentation.

D . Claiming Damages Without Limitation: Incorrect. Claims for damages are subject to limitations under securities law and are not unrestricted.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 17: Fund Facts and regulatory disclosures.



What responsibility falls on the buy-side portfolio manager?

  1. To busy securities in the market on demand to maintain liquidity in a security.
  2. To maintain constant contact with the investment dealer counterparties.
  3. To inform the trade about the market conditions and risks.
  4. To provide pertinent market information to the department heads of various asset classes.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The buy-side portfolio manager is responsible for managing investments on behalf of institutional or retail clients. A critical responsibility is to provide the buy-side trader with pertinent market information and analysis of risks to ensure that trades are executed effectively and aligned with the investment strategy.

Explanation of Options:

A . Maintain Liquidity: Incorrect. This is more relevant to market makers or sell-side dealers who provide liquidity in the market.

B . Contact with Dealers: Incorrect.
While buy-side managers interact with dealers, their primary role is to strategize, not to maintain constant contact.

C . Informing Traders: Correct. Buy-side managers analyze risks and market conditions and pass this information to traders for execution.

D . Provide Information to Department Heads: Incorrect. This is not a core responsibility of buy-side portfolio managers.


Reference:

CSC Volume 2, Chapter 27: Responsibilities of buy-side portfolio managers and their interactions with traders.



Viewing Page 5 of 25



Share your comments for CSI CSC2 exam with other users:

Nico 4/23/2023 11:41:00 PM

my 3rd purcahse from this site. these exam dumps are helpful. very helpful.
ITALY


Chere 9/15/2023 4:21:00 AM

found it good
Anonymous


Thembelani 5/30/2023 2:47:00 AM

excellent material
Anonymous


vinesh phale 9/11/2023 2:51:00 AM

very helpfull
UNITED STATES


Bhagiii 11/4/2023 7:04:00 AM

well explained.
Anonymous


Rahul 8/8/2023 9:40:00 PM

i need the pdf, please.
CANADA


CW 7/11/2023 2:51:00 PM

a good source for exam preparation
UNITED STATES


Anchal 10/23/2023 4:01:00 PM

nice questions
INDIA


J Nunes 9/29/2023 8:19:00 AM

i need ielts general training audio guide questions
BRAZIL


Ananya 9/14/2023 5:16:00 AM

please make this content available
UNITED STATES


Swathi 6/4/2023 2:18:00 PM

content is good
Anonymous


Leo 7/29/2023 8:45:00 AM

latest dumps please
INDIA


Laolu 2/15/2023 11:04:00 PM

aside from pdf the test engine software is helpful. the interface is user-friendly and intuitive, making it easy to navigate and find the questions.
UNITED STATES


Zaynik 9/17/2023 5:36:00 AM

questions and options are correct, but the answers are wrong sometimes. so please check twice or refer some other platform for the right answer
Anonymous


Massam 6/11/2022 5:55:00 PM

90% of questions was there but i failed the exam, i marked the answers as per the guide but looks like they are not accurate , if not i would have passed the exam given that i saw about 45 of 50 questions from dump
Anonymous


Anonymous 12/27/2023 12:47:00 AM

answer to this question "what administrative safeguards should be implemented to protect the collected data while in use by manasa and her product management team? " it should be (c) for the following reasons: this administrative safeguard involves controlling access to collected data by ensuring that only individuals who need the data for their job responsibilities have access to it. this helps minimize the risk of unauthorized access and potential misuse of sensitive information. while other options such as (a) documenting data flows and (b) conducting a privacy impact assessment (pia) are important steps in data protection, implementing a "need to know" access policy directly addresses the issue of protecting data while in use by limiting access to those who require it for legitimate purposes. (d) is not directly related to safeguarding data during use; it focuses on data transfers and location.
INDIA


Japles 5/23/2023 9:46:00 PM

password lockout being the correct answer for question 37 does not make sense. it should be geofencing.
Anonymous


Faritha 8/10/2023 6:00:00 PM

for question 4, the righr answer is :recover automatically from failures
UNITED STATES


Anonymous 9/14/2023 4:27:00 AM

question number 4s answer is 3, option c. i
UNITED STATES


p das 12/7/2023 11:41:00 PM

very good questions
UNITED STATES


Anna 1/5/2024 1:12:00 AM

i am confused about the answers to the questions. are the answers correct?
KOREA REPUBLIC OF


Bhavya 9/13/2023 10:15:00 AM

very usefull
Anonymous


Rahul Kumar 8/31/2023 12:30:00 PM

need certification.
CANADA


Diran Ole 9/17/2023 5:15:00 PM

great exam prep
CANADA


Venkata Subbarao Bandaru 6/24/2023 8:45:00 AM

i require dump
Anonymous


D 7/15/2023 1:38:00 AM

good morning, could you please upload this exam again,
Anonymous


Ann 9/15/2023 5:39:00 PM

hi can you please upload the dumps for sap contingent module. thanks
AUSTRALIA


Sridhar 1/16/2024 9:19:00 PM

good questions
Anonymous


Summer 10/4/2023 9:57:00 PM

looking forward to the real exam
Anonymous


vv 12/2/2023 2:45:00 PM

good ones for exam preparation
UNITED STATES


Danny Zas 9/15/2023 4:45:00 AM

this is a good experience
UNITED STATES


SM 1211 10/12/2023 10:06:00 PM

hi everyone
UNITED STATES


A 10/2/2023 6:08:00 PM

waiting for the dump. please upload.
UNITED STATES


Anonymous 7/16/2023 11:05:00 AM

upload cks exam questions
Anonymous