Confluent Certified Administrator for Apache Kafka CCAAK Dumps in PDF

Free Confluent CCAAK Real Questions (page: 6)

If a broker's JVM garbage collection takes too long, what can occur?

  1. There will be a trigger of the broker's log cleaner thread.
  2. ZooKeeper believes the broker to be dead.
  3. There is backpressure to, and pausing of, Kafka clients.
  4. Log files written to disk are loaded into the page cache.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

If the broker's JVM garbage collection (GC) pause is too long, it may fail to send heartbeats to ZooKeeper within the expected interval. As a result, ZooKeeper considers the broker dead, and the broker may be removed from the cluster, triggering leader elections and partition reassignments.



You are managing a Kafka cluster with five brokers (broker id '0', '1','2','3','4') and three ZooKeepers. There are 100 topics, five partitions for each topic, and replication factor three on the cluster. Broker id `0' is currently the Controller, and this broker suddenly fails.
Which statements are correct? (Choose three.)

  1. Kafka uses ZooKeeper's ephemeral node feature to elect a controller.
  2. The Controller is responsible for electing Leaders among the partitions and replicas.
  3. The Controller uses the epoch number to prevent a split brain scenario.
  4. The broker id is used as the epoch number to prevent a split brain scenario.
  5. The number of Controllers should always be equal to the number of brokers alive in the cluster.
  6. The Controller is responsible for reassigning partitions to the consumers in a Consumer Group.

Answer(s): A,B,C

Explanation:

Kafka relies on ZooKeeper's ephemeral nodes to detect if a broker (controller) goes down and to elect a new controller.
The controller manages partition leadership assignments and handles leader election when a broker fails.

The epoch number ensures coordination and avoids outdated controllers acting on stale data.



When a broker goes down, what will the Controller do?

  1. Wait for a follower to take the lead.
  2. Trigger a leader election among the remaining followers to distribute leadership.
  3. Become the leader for the topic/partition that needs a leader, pending the broker return in the cluster.
  4. Automatically elect the least loaded broker to become the leader for every orphan's partitions.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

When a broker goes down, the Controller detects the failure and triggers a leader election for all partitions that had their leader on the failed broker. The leader is chosen from the in-sync replicas (ISRs) of each partition.



Which technology can be used to perform event stream processing? (Choose two.)

  1. Confluent Schema Registry
  2. Apache Kafka Streams
  3. Confluent ksqlDB
  4. Confluent Replicator

Answer(s): B,C

Explanation:

Kafka Streams is a client library for building real-time applications that process and analyze data stored in Kafka.
ksqlDB enables event stream processing using SQL-like queries, allowing real-time transformation and analysis of Kafka topics.



How can load balancing of Kafka clients across multiple brokers be accomplished?

  1. Partitions
  2. Replicas
  3. Offsets
  4. Connectors

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Partitions are the primary mechanism for achieving load balancing in Kafka.
When a topic has multiple partitions, Kafka clients (producers and consumers) can distribute the load across brokers hosting these partitions.



A company is setting up a log ingestion use case where they will consume logs from numerous systems. The company wants to tune Kafka for the utmost throughput. In this scenario, what acknowledgment setting makes the most sense?

  1. acks=0
  2. acks=1
  3. acks=all
  4. acks=undefined

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

acks=0 provides the highest throughput because the producer does not wait for any acknowledgment from the broker. This minimizes latency and maximizes performance. However, it comes at the cost of no durability guarantees -- messages may be lost if the broker fails before writing them. This setting is suitable when throughput is critical and occasional data loss is acceptable, such as in some log ingestion use cases where logs are also stored elsewhere.



Your Kafka cluster has four brokers. The topic t1 on the cluster has two partitions, and it has a replication factor of three. You create a Consumer Group with four consumers, which subscribes to t1.
In the scenario above, how many Controllers are in the Kafka cluster?

  1. One
  2. two
  3. three
  4. Four

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In a Kafka cluster, only one broker acts as the Controller at any given time. The Controller is responsible for managing cluster metadata, such as partition leadership and broker status. Even if the cluster has multiple brokers (in this case, four), only one is elected as the Controller, and others serve as regular brokers. If the current Controller fails, another broker is automatically elected to take its place.



You want to increase Producer throughput for the messages it sends to your Kafka cluster by tuning the batch size (`batch size') and the time the Producer waits before sending a batch (`linger.ms').
According to best practices, what should you do?

  1. Decrease `batch.size' and decrease `linger.ms'
  2. Decrease `batch.size' and increase `linger.ms'
  3. Increase `batch.size' and decrease `linger.ms'
  4. Increase `batch.size' and increase `linger.ms'

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Increasing batch.size allows the producer to accumulate more messages into a single batch, improving compression and reducing the number of requests sent to the broker. Increasing linger.ms gives the producer more time to fill up batches before sending them, which improves batching efficiency and throughput.
This combination is a best practice for maximizing throughput, especially when message volume is high or consistent latency is not a strict requirement.



Share your comments for Confluent CCAAK exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

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Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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