Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 ANS-C01 Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon ANS-C01 Real Questions (page: 4)

A global company operates all its non-production environments out of three AWS Regions: eu-west-1, us-east- 1, and us-west-1. The company hosts all its production workloads in two on-premises data centers. The company has 60 AWS accounts and each account has two VPCs in each Region. Each VPC has a virtual private gateway where two VPN connections terminate for resilient connectivity to the data centers. The company has 360 VPN tunnels to each data center, resulting in high management overhead. The total VPN throughput for each Region is 500 Mbps.

The company wants to migrate the production environments to AWS. The company needs a solution that will simplify the network architecture and allow for future growth. The production environments will generate an additional 2 Gbps of traffic per Region back to the data centers. This traffic will increase over time.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Set up an AWS Direct Connect connection from each data center to AWS in each Region. Create and attach private VIFs to a single Direct Connect gateway. Attach the Direct Connect gateway to all the VPCs.
    Remove the existing VPN connections that are attached directly to the virtual private gateways.
  2. Create a single transit gateway with VPN connections from each data center. Share the transit gateway with each account by using AWS Resource Access Manager (AWS RAM). Attach the transit gateway to each VPC. Remove the existing VPN connections that are attached directly to the virtual private gateways.
  3. Create a transit gateway in each Region with multiple newly commissioned VPN connections from each data center. Share the transit gateways with each account by using AWS Resource Access Manager (AWS RAM). In each Region, attach the transit gateway to each VP Remove the existing VPN connections that are attached directly to the virtual private gateways.
  4. Peer all the VPCs in each Region to a new VPC in each Region that will function as a centralized transit VPC. Create new VPN connections from each data center to the transit VPCs. Terminate the original VPN connections that are attached to all the original VPCs. Retain the new VPN connection to the new transit VPC in each Region.

Answer(s): C



A company is building its website on AWS in a single VPC. The VPC has public subnets and private subnets in two Availability Zones. The website has static content such as images. The company is using Amazon S3 to store the content.

The company has deployed a fleet of Amazon EC2 instances as web servers in a private subnet. The EC2 instances are in an Auto Scaling group behind an Application Load Balancer. The EC2 instances will serve traffic, and they must pull content from an S3 bucket to render the webpages. The company is using AWS Direct Connect with a public VIF for on-premises connectivity to the S3 bucket.

A network engineer notices that traffic between the EC2 instances and Amazon S3 is routing through a NAT gateway. As traffic increases, the company's costs are increasing. The network engineer needs to change the

connectivity to reduce the NAT gateway costs that result from the traffic between the EC2 instances and Amazon S3.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Create a Direct Connect private VIF. Migrate the traffic from the public VIF to the private VIF.
  2. Create an AWS Site-to-Site VPN tunnel over the existing public VIF.
  3. Implement interface VPC endpoints for Amazon S3. Update the VPC route table.
  4. Implement gateway VPC endpoints for Amazon S3. Update the VPC route table.

Answer(s): D



A company wants to improve visibility into its AWS environment. The AWS environment consists of multiple VPCs that are connected to a transit gateway. The transit gateway connects to an on-premises data center through an AWS Direct Connect gateway and a pair of redundant Direct Connect connections that use transit VIFs. The company must receive notification each time a new route is advertised to AWS from on premises over Direct Connect.

What should a network engineer do to meet these requirements?

  1. Enable Amazon CloudWatch metrics on Direct Connect to track the received routes. Configure a CloudWatch alarm to send notifications when routes change.
  2. Onboard Transit Gateway Network Manager to Amazon CloudWatch Logs Insights. Use Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) to send notifications when routes change.
  3. Configure an AWS Lambda function to periodically check the routes on the Direct Connect gateway and to send notifications when routes change.
  4. Enable Amazon CloudWatch Logs on the transit VIFs to track the received routes. Create a metric filter. Set an alarm on the filter to send notifications when routes change.

Answer(s): B



A software company offers a software-as-a-service (SaaS) accounting application that is hosted in the AWS Cloud The application requires connectivity to the company's on-premises network. The company has two redundant 10 GB AWS Direct Connect connections between AWS and its on-premises network to accommodate the growing demand for the application.

The company already has encryption between its on-premises network and the colocation. The company needs to encrypt traffic between AWS and the edge routers in the colocation within the next few months. The company must maintain its current bandwidth.

What should a network engineer do to meet these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?

  1. Deploy a new public VIF with encryption on the existing Direct Connect connections. Reroute traffic through the new public VIF.
  2. Create a virtual private gateway Deploy new AWS Site-to-Site VPN connections from on premises to the virtual private gateway Reroute traffic from the Direct Connect private VIF to the new VPNs.
  3. Deploy a new pair of 10 GB Direct Connect connections with MACsec. Configure MACsec on the edge routers. Reroute traffic to the new Direct Connect connections. Decommission the original Direct Connect connections
  4. Deploy a new pair of 10 GB Direct Connect connections with MACsec. Deploy a new public VIF on the new Direct Connect connections. Deploy two AWS Site-to-Site VPN connections on top of the new public VIF.
    Reroute traffic from the existing private VIF to the new Site-to-Site connections. Decommission the original Direct Connect connections.

Answer(s): C



A company hosts an application on Amazon EC2 instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The company recently experienced a network security breach. A network engineer must collect and analyze logs that include the client IP address, target IP address, target port, and user agent of each user that accesses the application.

What is the MOST operationally efficient solution that meets these requirements?

  1. Configure the ALB to store logs in an Amazon S3 bucket. Download the files from Amazon S3, and use a spreadsheet application to analyze the logs.
  2. Configure the ALB to push logs to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics to analyze the logs.
  3. Configure Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to stream data from the ALB to Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service). Use search operations in Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) to analyze the data.
  4. Configure the ALB to store logs in an Amazon S3 bucket. Use Amazon Athena to analyze the logs in Amazon S3.

Answer(s): C



A media company is implementing a news website for a global audience. The website uses Amazon CloudFront as its content delivery network. The backend runs on Amazon EC2 Windows instances behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). The instances are part of an Auto Scaling group. The company's customers access the website by using service example com as the CloudFront custom domain name. The CloudFront origin points to an ALB that uses service-alb.example.com as the domain name.

The company's security policy requires the traffic to be encrypted in transit at all times between the users and the backend.

Which combination of changes must the company make to meet this security requirement? (Choose three.)

  1. Create a self-signed certificate for service.example.com. Import the certificate into AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). Configure CloudFront to use this imported SSL/TLS certificate. Change the default behavior to redirect HTTP to HTTPS.
  2. Create a certificate for service.example.com by using AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). Configure CloudFront to use this custom SSL/TLS certificate. Change the default behavior to redirect HTTP to HTTPS.
  3. Create a certificate with any domain name by using AWS Certificate Manager (ACM) for the EC2 instances.
    Configure the backend to use this certificate for its HTTPS listener. Specify the instance target type during the creation of a new target group that uses the HTTPS protocol for its targets. Attach the existing Auto Scaling group to this new target group.
  4. Create a public certificate from a third-party certificate provider with any domain name for the EC2 instances. Configure the backend to use this certificate for its HTTPS listener. Specify the instance target
    type during the creation of a new target group that uses the HTTPS protocol for its targets. Attach the existing Auto Scaling group to this new target group.
  5. Create a certificate for service-alb.example.com by using AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). On the ALB add a new HTTPS listener that uses the new target group and the service-alb.example.com ACM certificate.
    Modify the CloudFront origin to use the HTTPS protocol only. Delete the HTTP listener on the ALB.
  6. Create a self-signed certificate for service-alb.example.com. Import the certificate into AWS Certificate Manager (ACM). On the ALB add a new HTTPS listener that uses the new target group and the imported service-alb.example.com ACM certificate. Modify the CloudFront origin to use the HTTPS protocol only.
    Delete the HTTP listener on the ALB.

Answer(s): B,D,E



A company is hosting an application on Amazon EC2 instances behind a Network Load Balancer (NLB). A solutions architect added EC2 instances in a second Availability Zone to improve the availability of the application. The solutions architect added the instances to the NLB target group.

The company's operations team notices that traffic is being routed only to the instances in the first Availability Zone.

What is the MOST operationally efficient solution to resolve this issue?

  1. Enable the new Availability Zone on the NLB
  2. Create a new NLB for the instances in the second Availability Zone
  3. Enable proxy protocol on the NLB
  4. Create a new target group with the instances in both Availability Zones

Answer(s): A



A network engineer needs to set up an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group to run a Linux-based network appliance in a highly available architecture. The network engineer is configuring the new launch template for the Auto Scaling group.

In addition to the primary network interface the network appliance requires a second network interface that will be used exclusively by the application to exchange traffic with hosts over the internet. The company has set up a Bring Your Own IP (BYOIP) pool that includes an Elastic IP address that should be used as the public IP address for the second network interface.

How can the network engineer implement the required architecture?

  1. Configure the two network interfaces in the launch template. Define the primary network interface to be created in one of the private subnets. For the second network interface, select one of the public subnets.
    Choose the BYOIP pool ID as the source of public IP addresses.
  2. Configure the primary network interface in a private subnet in the launch template. Use the user data option to run a cloud-init script after boot to attach the second network interface from a subnet with auto-assign public IP addressing enabled.
  3. Create an AWS Lambda function to run as a lifecycle hook of the Auto Scaling group when an instance is launching. In the Lambda function, assign a network interface to an AWS Global Accelerator endpoint.
  4. During creation of the Auto Scaling group, select subnets for the primary network interface. Use the user data option to run a cloud-init script to allocate a second network interface and to associate an Elastic IP
    address from the BYOIP pool.

Answer(s): D



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/15/2026 9:49:16 AM

Question 5:
I can’t see the [Image] in Question 5, but I can explain the likely reasoning.

  • Correct components: SAS adapter and disk (options B and D).
  • Why: This question is about diagnosing a storage-path issue inside the node. The SAS adapter connects disks to the controller, and the disks themselves are where I/O problems or failures usually originate. The cluster switches and network interface cards are more related to the network path rather than the direct storage path, unless the symptom points to a network fault.

How to examine these two components:
  • SAS adapter
- Check link status and port mapping. - Verify firmware version and compatibility. - Inspect cabling to disk shelves and any expanders. - Look for adapter errors in system logs.
  • Disk
- Check health status for each disk (fail/degraded, SMART data). - Inspect LEDs on the disk and shelf. - Review reallocation, pending operations, and overall disk state with storage commands/logs. - Confirm hot spares and disk replacement readiness.
If you want, I can walk through the exact commands you’d use in ONTAP or a CLI.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:59:47 AM

Question 12:
Here’s why Question 12’s correct choices are C and D.

  • C (Azure DevOps, build and upload to asset library)
- What it means: Create a deployable package from a branch in Azure DevOps, then use an LCS asset upload step to push that package into the Dynamics 365 F&O asset library. - Why it’s valid: This is a standard path to prepare and publish a deployable package to LCS for deployment.
  • D (Visual Studio, create deployment package and upload)
- What it means: Use Visual Studio to generate a Dynamics 365 deployment package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. - Why it’s valid: Visual Studio can produce the deployable package, which is what LCS expects in the asset library.
Why A and B are not correct:
  • A: Visual Studio export the project and upload to asset library
- You don’t export a project to the asset library; you export a deployable package and upload that.
  • B: Azure DevOps, queue a build and upload the model to the asset library
- The asset library stores deployable packages, not models. You upload a package, not a model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:49:11 AM

Question 3:
Question 3 asks for two valid ways to meet the purchase order creation validation (warn if the vendor is on the exclusion list for the customer/product and block/alert accordingly).
Correct answers: C and D

  • C: In Application Explorer, create a form extension and implement validation.
- Extend the Purchase Order creation form and add validation logic (e.g., before save/submit) to check VendExclusions for the customer/item and show a warning or block the PO as needed.
  • D: Implement Chain of Command (CoC) and method wrapping by creating a form extension class.
- Use CoC to wrap the target PO creation method, perform the exclusion check after calling super(), and enforce the rule (warning or prevent creation).
Why not A or B?
  • A (class with a form data source event handler) is not the standard pattern for this UI-level validation scenario and is less direct for enforcing creation-time behavior.
  • B (table extension with validation) cannot sufficiently enforce the UI-level workflow or trigger user-facing warnings during PO creation.

So, the two valid techniques are C and D, reflecting the recommended form-extension patterns: direct form validation and CoC-based method wrapping.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

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Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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