Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 ANS-C01 Dumps in PDF

Free Amazon ANS-C01 Real Questions (page: 2)

A banking company is successfully operating its public mobile banking stack on AWS. The mobile banking stack is deployed in a VPC that includes private subnets and public subnets. The company is using IPv4 networking and has not deployed or supported IPv6 in the environment. The company has decided to adopt a third-party service provider's API and must integrate the API with the existing environment. The service provider's API requires the use of IPv6.

A network engineer must turn on IPv6 connectivity for the existing workload that is deployed in a private subnet. The company does not want to permit IPv6 traffic from the public internet and mandates that the company's servers must initiate all IPv6 connectivity. The network engineer turns on IPv6 in the VPC and in the private subnets.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Create an internet gateway and a NAT gateway in the VPC. Add a route to the existing subnet route tables to point IPv6 traffic to the NAT gateway.
  2. Create an internet gateway and a NAT instance in the VPC. Add a route to the existing subnet route tables to point IPv6 traffic to the NAT instance.
  3. Create an egress-only Internet gateway in the VP Add a route to the existing subnet route tables to point IPv6 traffic to the egress-only internet gateway.
  4. Create an egress-only internet gateway in the VPC. Configure a security group that denies all inbound traffic. Associate the security group with the egress-only internet gateway.

Answer(s): C



A company has deployed an AWS Network Firewall firewall into a VPC. A network engineer needs to implement a solution to deliver Network Firewall flow logs to the company's Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster in the shortest possible time.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Create an Amazon S3 bucket. Create an AWS Lambda function to load logs into the Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster. Enable Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) notifications on the S3 bucket to invoke the Lambda function. Configure flow logs for the firewall. Set the S3 bucket as the destination.
  2. Create an Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream that includes the Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster as the destination. Configure flow logs for the firewall. Set the Kinesis Data Firehose delivery stream as the destination for the Network Firewall flow logs.
  3. Configure flow logs for the firewall. Set the Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster as the destination for the Network Firewall flow logs.
  4. Create an Amazon Kinesis data stream that includes the Amazon OpenSearch Service (Amazon Elasticsearch Service) cluster as the destination. Configure flow logs for the firewall. Set the Kinesis data stream as the destination for the Network Firewall flow logs.

Answer(s): B



A company is using custom DNS servers that run BIND for name resolution in its VPCs. The VPCs are deployed across multiple AWS accounts that are part of the same organization in AWS Organizations. All the VPCs are connected to a transit gateway. The BIND servers are running in a central VPC and are configured to forward all queries for an on-premises DNS domain to DNS servers that are hosted in an on-premises data center. To ensure that all the VPCs use the custom DNS servers, a network engineer has configured a VPC DHCP options set in all the VPCs that specifies the custom DNS servers to be used as domain name servers.

Multiple development teams in the company want to use Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS). A development team has created a new EFS file system but cannot mount the file system to one of its Amazon EC2 instances. The network engineer discovers that the EC2 instance cannot resolve the IP address for the

EFS mount point fs-33444567d.efs.us-east-1.amazonaws.com. The network engineer needs to implement a solution so that development teams throughout the organization can mount EFS file systems.

Which combination of steps will meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

  1. Configure the BIND DNS servers in the central VPC to forward queries for efs.us-east-1.amazonaws.com to the Amazon provided DNS server (169.254.169.253).
  2. Create an Amazon Route 53 Resolver outbound endpoint in the central VPC. Update all the VPC DHCP options sets to use AmazonProvidedDNS for name resolution.
  3. Create an Amazon Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint in the central VP Update all the VPC DHCP options sets to use the Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint in the central VPC for name resolution.
  4. Create an Amazon Route 53 Resolver rule to forward queries for the on-premises domain to the on- premises DNS servers. Share the rule with the organization by using AWS Resource Access Manager (AWS RAM). Associate the rule with all the VPCs.
  5. Create an Amazon Route 53 private hosted zone for the efs.us-east-1.amazonaws.com domain. Associate the private hosted zone with the VPC where the EC2 instance is deployed. Create an A record for fs- 33444567d.efs.us-east-1.amazonaws.com in the private hosted zone. Configure the A record to return the mount target of the EFS mount point.

Answer(s): B,D



An ecommerce company is hosting a web application on Amazon EC2 instances to handle continuously changing customer demand. The EC2 instances are part of an Auto Scaling group. The company wants to implement a solution to distribute traffic from customers to the EC2 instances. The company must encrypt all traffic at all stages between the customers and the application servers. No decryption at intermediate points is allowed.

Which solution will meet these requirements?

  1. Create an Application Load Balancer (ALB). Add an HTTPS listener to the ALB. Configure the Auto Scaling group to register instances with the ALB's target group.
  2. Create an Amazon CloudFront distribution. Configure the distribution with a custom SSL/TLS certificate. Set the Auto Scaling group as the distribution's origin.
  3. Create a Network Load Balancer (NLB). Add a TCP listener to the NLB. Configure the Auto Scaling group to register instances with the NLB's target group.
  4. Create a Gateway Load Balancer (GLB). Configure the Auto Scaling group to register instances with the GLB's target group.

Answer(s): C



A company has two on-premises data center locations. There is a company-managed router at each data center. Each data center has a dedicated AWS Direct Connect connection to a Direct Connect gateway through a private virtual interface. The router for the first location is advertising 110 routes to the Direct Connect gateway by using BGP, and the router for the second location is advertising 60 routes to the Direct Connect gateway by using BGP. The Direct Connect gateway is attached to a company VPC through a virtual private gateway.

A network engineer receives reports that resources in the VPC are not reachable from various locations in either data center. The network engineer checks the VPC route table and sees that the routes from the first

data center location are not being populated into the route table. The network engineer must resolve this issue in the most operationally efficient manner.

What should the network engineer do to meet these requirements?

  1. Remove the Direct Connect gateway, and create a new private virtual interface from each company router to the virtual private gateway of the VPC.
  2. Change the router configurations to summarize the advertised routes.
  3. Open a support ticket to increase the quota on advertised routes to the VPC route table.
  4. Create an AWS Transit Gateway. Attach the transit gateway to the VPC, and connect the Direct Connect gateway to the transit gateway.

Answer(s): B



A company has expanded its network to the AWS Cloud by using a hybrid architecture with multiple AWS accounts. The company has set up a shared AWS account for the connection to its on-premises data centers and the company offices. The workloads consist of private web-based services for internal use. These services run in different AWS accounts. Office-based employees consume these services by using a DNS name in an on-premises DNS zone that is named example.internal.

The process to register a new service that runs on AWS requires a manual and complicated change request to the internal DNS. The process involves many teams.

The company wants to update the DNS registration process by giving the service creators access that will allow them to register their DNS records. A network engineer must design a solution that will achieve this goal. The solution must maximize cost-effectiveness and must require the least possible number of configuration changes.

Which combination of steps should the network engineer take to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

  1. Create a record for each service in its local private hosted zone (serviceaccount1.aws.example.internal).
    Provide this DNS record to the employees who need access.
  2. Create an Amazon Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint in the shared account VPC. Create a conditional forwarder for a domain named aws.example.internal on the on-premises DNS servers. Set the forwarding IP addresses to the inbound endpoint's IP addresses that were created.
  3. Create an Amazon Route 53 Resolver rule to forward any queries made to onprem.example.internal to the on-premises DNS servers.
  4. Create an Amazon Route 53 private hosted zone named aws.example.internal in the shared AWS account to resolve queries for this domain.
  5. Launch two Amazon EC2 instances in the shared AWS account. Install BIND on each instance. Create a DNS conditional forwarder on each BIND server to forward queries for each subdomain under aws.example.internal to the appropriate private hosted zone in each AWS account. Create a conditional forwarder for a domain named aws.example.internal on the on-premises DNS servers. Set the forwarding IP addresses to the IP addresses of the BIND servers.
  6. Create a private hosted zone in the shared AWS account for each account that runs the service. Configure the private hosted zone to contain aws.example.internal in the domain (account1.aws.example.internal).
    Associate the private hosted zone with the VPC that runs the service and the shared account VPC.

Answer(s): B,D,F



A company has multiple AWS accounts. Each account contains one or more VPCs. A new security guideline requires the inspection of all traffic between VPCs.

The company has deployed a transit gateway that provides connectivity between all VPCs. The company also has deployed a shared services VPC with Amazon EC2 instances that include IDS services for stateful inspection. The EC2 instances are deployed across three Availability Zones. The company has set up VPC associations and routing on the transit gateway. The company has migrated a few test VPCs to the new solution for traffic inspection.

Soon after the configuration of routing, the company receives reports of intermittent connections for traffic that crosses Availability Zones.

What should a network engineer do to resolve this issue?

  1. Modify the transit gateway VPC attachment on the shared services VPC by enabling cross-Availability Zone load balancing.
  2. Modify the transit gateway VPC attachment on the shared services VPC by enabling appliance mode support.
  3. Modify the transit gateway by selecting VPN equal-cost multi-path (ECMP) routing support.
  4. Modify the transit gateway by selecting multicast support.

Answer(s): C



A company is using a NAT gateway to allow internet connectivity for private subnets in a VPC in the us-west-2 Region. After a security audit, the company needs to remove the NAT gateway.

In the private subnets, the company has resources that use the unified Amazon CloudWatch agent. A network engineer must create a solution to ensure that the unified CloudWatch agent continues to work after the removal of the NAT gateway.

Which combination of steps should the network engineer take to meet these requirements? (Choose three.)

  1. Validate that private DNS is enabled on the VPC by setting the enableDnsHostnames VPC attribute and the enableDnsSupport VPC attribute to true.
  2. Create a new security group with an entry to allow outbound traffic that uses the TCP protocol on port 443 to destination 0.0.0.0/0
  3. Create a new security group with entries to allow inbound traffic that uses the TCP protocol on port 443 from the IP prefixes of the private subnets.
  4. Create the following interface VPC endpoints in the VPC: com.amazonaws.us-west-2.logs and com.amazonaws.us-west-2.monitoring. Associate the new security group with the endpoint network interfaces.
  5. Create the following interface VPC endpoint in the VPC: com.amazonaws.us-west-2.cloudwatch. Associate the new security group with the endpoint network interfaces.
  6. Associate the VPC endpoint or endpoints with route tables that the private subnets use.

Answer(s): A,C,D



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:59:47 AM

Question 12:
Here’s why Question 12’s correct choices are C and D.

  • C (Azure DevOps, build and upload to asset library)
- What it means: Create a deployable package from a branch in Azure DevOps, then use an LCS asset upload step to push that package into the Dynamics 365 F&O asset library. - Why it’s valid: This is a standard path to prepare and publish a deployable package to LCS for deployment.
  • D (Visual Studio, create deployment package and upload)
- What it means: Use Visual Studio to generate a Dynamics 365 deployment package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. - Why it’s valid: Visual Studio can produce the deployable package, which is what LCS expects in the asset library.
Why A and B are not correct:
  • A: Visual Studio export the project and upload to asset library
- You don’t export a project to the asset library; you export a deployable package and upload that.
  • B: Azure DevOps, queue a build and upload the model to the asset library
- The asset library stores deployable packages, not models. You upload a package, not a model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:49:11 AM

Question 3:
Question 3 asks for two valid ways to meet the purchase order creation validation (warn if the vendor is on the exclusion list for the customer/product and block/alert accordingly).
Correct answers: C and D

  • C: In Application Explorer, create a form extension and implement validation.
- Extend the Purchase Order creation form and add validation logic (e.g., before save/submit) to check VendExclusions for the customer/item and show a warning or block the PO as needed.
  • D: Implement Chain of Command (CoC) and method wrapping by creating a form extension class.
- Use CoC to wrap the target PO creation method, perform the exclusion check after calling super(), and enforce the rule (warning or prevent creation).
Why not A or B?
  • A (class with a form data source event handler) is not the standard pattern for this UI-level validation scenario and is less direct for enforcing creation-time behavior.
  • B (table extension with validation) cannot sufficiently enforce the UI-level workflow or trigger user-facing warnings during PO creation.

So, the two valid techniques are C and D, reflecting the recommended form-extension patterns: direct form validation and CoC-based method wrapping.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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