WGU Cybersecurity Architecture and Engineering (KFO1/D488) Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering Dumps in PDF

Free WGU Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering Real Questions (page: 20)

Which type of communications media uses light waves to transmit data?

  1. Fiber optic
  2. Radio towers
  3. Twisted pair
  4. Coaxial

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Fiber optic communications use light waves to transmit data.

This method allows for high-speed and long-distance data transmission.

The other options:

Radio towers use radio waves.

Twisted pair uses electrical signals.

Coaxial also uses electrical signals.

Therefore, the correct communication medium that uses light waves is fiber optic.


Reference:

"Fiber-Optic Communication Systems" by Govind P. Agrawal, which details how fiber optics use light for data transmission.

"Communication Networks" by Alberto Leon-Garcia and Indra Widjaja, which explains various communication media.



Which device does a Local Area Network (LAN) need to communicate over the Internet?

  1. Multiplexer
  2. Repeater
  3. Switch
  4. Router

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A Local Area Network (LAN) requires a router to communicate over the Internet.

The router serves as a gateway that connects the LAN to the external network (Internet) and directs data traffic between the LAN and the Internet.

The other options:

Multiplexer combines multiple signals into one.

Repeater amplifies signals to extend the range.

Switch connects devices within the LAN but does not facilitate Internet communication.

Therefore, a router is the necessary device for a LAN to communicate over the Internet.


Reference:

"Computer Networking: A Top-Down Approach" by James Kurose and Keith Ross, which explains network devices and their functions.

"CCNA Routing and Switching Study Guide" by Todd Lammle, which covers routers and their roles in networks.



What are two roles of a DNS?

Choose 2 answers

  1. Creating IP addresses if it cannot find an alias
  2. Storing the IP address
  3. Translating an IP alias to an actual IP address
  4. Sending packets along a pathway that connects it to the Internet

Answer(s): B,C

Explanation:

The Domain Name System (DNS) has several key roles, including:

Storing the IP addresses associated with domain names.

Translating human-readable domain names (aliases) into IP addresses that computers use to identify each other on the network.

The other options:

Creating IP addresses if it cannot find an alias is incorrect; DNS does not create IP addresses.

Sending packets along a pathway that connects it to the Internet is the role of routers and not DNS.

Therefore, storing the IP address and translating an IP alias to an actual IP address are the correct roles of DNS.


Reference:

"DNS and BIND" by Paul Albitz and Cricket Liu, which details the functions and roles of DNS.

"The Practice of System and Network Administration" by Thomas Limoncelli, Christina Hogan, and Strata Chalup, which explains DNS operations.



Which part of the Uniform Resource Locator (URL) identifies the server on which the web page can be found?

  1. Resource path ID
  2. Domain name
  3. Protocol
  4. IP address

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The domain name in a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) identifies the server on which the web page can be found.

Example: In the URL "http://www.example.com/index.html":

"http" is the protocol.

"www.example.com" is the domain name.

"/index.html" is the resource path ID.

The other options:

The protocol specifies the communication method.

The resource path ID specifies the specific page or resource on the server.

The IP address is not typically visible in the URL itself but can be resolved via DNS.

Therefore, the domain name is the correct part that identifies the server.


Reference:

"Web Development and Design Foundations with HTML5" by Terry Felke-Morris, which explains URL components.

"Internet and World Wide Web How to Program" by Paul Deitel and Harvey Deitel, which covers URLs and their structure.



What is the purpose of the feature that allows only one user to modify a document at a time in collaboration software?

  1. Data availability
  2. Data integrity
  3. Data confidentiality
  4. Data accessibility

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The feature in collaboration software that allows only one user to modify a document at a time ensures data integrity.

Data integrity refers to the accuracy and consistency of data over its lifecycle.

By restricting modification access to one user at a time, the system prevents concurrent changes that could lead to data conflicts or corruption.

The other options:

Data availability ensures data is accessible when needed.

Data confidentiality ensures data is protected from unauthorized access.

Data accessibility refers to the ease of accessing data.

Therefore, ensuring data integrity is the purpose of this feature.


Reference:

"Database Systems: The Complete Book" by Hector Garcia-Molina, Jeffrey D. Ullman, and Jennifer Widom, which discusses data integrity.

"Collaborative Computing: Theory, Practice, and Tools" by Vladimir Dimitrov, which covers features in collaboration software.



Which technique allows someone to obtain a password while it is in transit?

  1. Packet sniffing
  2. Buffer overflow
  3. Phishing
  4. Black hat

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Packet sniffing is a technique used to capture and analyze network traffic, which can include intercepting passwords while they are in transit.

When data packets are transmitted over a network, a packet sniffer can capture these packets, and if they are not encrypted, it can read sensitive information like passwords.

The other options:

Buffer overflow is a type of attack that exploits a program's memory handling.

Phishing is a social engineering attack to deceive users into providing sensitive information.

Black hat refers to a hacker with malicious intent, not a specific technique.

Therefore, packet sniffing is the correct technique for obtaining passwords in transit.


Reference:

"Network Security Essentials: Applications and Standards" by William Stallings, which explains packet sniffing and network security threats.

"Computer Security: Principles and Practice" by William Stallings and Lawrie Brown, which covers network attack techniques including packet sniffing.



Which is true about access rights?

  1. They limit users to permitted items.
  2. They are part of the System Development Life Cycle.
  3. They require the use of a compiler.
  4. They are defined by the machine language.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Access rights are critical components of access control mechanisms in information security. They specify what actions users or systems can perform on specific resources, limiting them to only permitted items.

Definition: Access rights, also known as permissions, are rules that define the allowed actions on a resource (e.g., read, write, execute).

Implementation: Access rights are typically implemented using Access Control Lists (ACLs), Role- Based Access Control (RBAC), or other access control models.

Purpose: The main goal is to enforce the principle of least privilege, ensuring that users can only access the resources necessary for their role.

Reference

NIST Special Publication 800-53

ISO/IEC 27001:2013

"Computer Security: Principles and Practice" by William Stallings



Which characteristic applies to machine-level languages?

  1. They use language translators known as compilers
  2. They use cables to connect circuits
  3. They use collection of short scripts
  4. They use language translators known as assemblers

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Machine-level languages, also known as assembly languages, are low-level programming languages that are closely related to machine code.

Definition: Machine-level languages consist of instructions that are directly executed by a computer's CPU.

Assemblers: An assembler is a tool that translates assembly language code into machine code.

Characteristics: Assembly languages are specific to a computer architecture and provide a way to write programs that can be executed by the hardware directly.

Reference

"Structured Computer Organization" by Andrew S. Tanenbaum

"Computer Systems: A Programmer's Perspective" by Randal E. Bryant and David R. O'Hallaron



Share your comments for WGU Cybersecurity-Architecture-and-Engineering exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!