STEP3 Exam dumps PDF | Exam-Dumps (Page: 27)

QUESTION: 131

A19-year-old male who moved to your city 3 months ago comes to your office complaining of dry cough for the past 23 months. Along with the cough, he has had some shortness of breath with exertion. He denies fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, wheezing, and sneezing. The cough occurs mostly in the morning and improves as the day goes on. He denies similar complaints in the past and has no history of allergies. He says that his father had eczema and an allergy to eggs.

The pulmonary function test that is most likely to be diagnostic in this patient is which of these?

increased total lung capacity
increased functional residual capacity
increased residual volume
decreased forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1)
decreased forced inspiratory volume

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

This patient is manifesting symptoms consistent with asthma. With the history of recently moving to a new area, along with a family history of allergies and eczema, his asthma may be further classified as allergic asthma. Episodic symptoms of cough, dyspnea, and wheezing are likely to occur. The diagnosis of asthma is made by demonstrating reversible airway obstruction. Airway obstruction is likely to be manifested by a reduction in the FEV1. An increase in the FEV1 of 15% after the use of a bronchodilator is the definition of reversibility. A CXR is most likely to be normal. Numerous cardiac conditions, such as CHF, cardiomyopathies, or pericardial effusions, may result in cardiomegaly on a CXR. Diffuse infiltrates may be seen with infections, interstitial lung disease, or other conditions. Flattened diaphragms would be consistent with prolonged obstructive lung disease, such as emphysema.

The treatment of choice for the prevention of symptoms in all stages of asthma other than mild intermittent is inhaled steroid. All patients with asthma should also have a short-acting bronchodilator for acute symptomatic relief. A leukotriene modifier would be an alternative recommendation and might be a good addition to an inhaled steroid, as they also have FDA indications for patients with allergic rhinitis.

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QUESTION: 132

A19-year-old male who moved to your city 3 months ago comes to your office complaining of dry cough for the past 23 months. Along with the cough, he has had some shortness of breath with exertion. He denies fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, wheezing, and sneezing. The cough occurs mostly in the morning and improves as the day goes on. He denies similar complaints in the past and has no history of allergies. He says that his father had eczema and an allergy to eggs. What is the single best treatment for preventing symptoms in this patient?

long-acting beta-2 agonists
an inhaled steroid
an inhaled anticholinergic
leukotriene modifiers
long-acting oral bronchodilators

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

This patient is manifesting symptoms consistent with asthma. With the history of recently moving to a new area, along with a family history of allergies and eczema, his asthma may be further classified as allergic asthma. Episodic symptoms of cough, dyspnea, and wheezing are likely to occur. The diagnosis of asthma is made by demonstrating reversible airway obstruction. Airway obstruction is likely to be manifested by a reduction in the FEV1. An increase in the FEV1 of 15% after the use of a bronchodilator is the definition of reversibility. A CXR is most likely to be normal. Numerous cardiac conditions, such as CHF, cardiomyopathies, or pericardial effusions, may result in cardiomegaly on a CXR. Diffuse infiltrates may be seen with infections, interstitial lung disease, or other conditions. Flattened diaphragms would be consistent with prolonged obstructive lung disease, such as emphysema.

The treatment of choice for the prevention of symptoms in all stages of asthma other than mild intermittent is inhaled steroid. All patients with asthma should also have a short-acting bronchodilator for acute symptomatic relief. A leukotriene modifier would be an alternative recommendation and might be a good addition to an inhaled steroid, as they also have FDA indications for patients with allergic rhinitis.

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QUESTION: 133

A19-year-old male who moved to your city 3 months ago comes to your office complaining of dry cough for the past 23 months. Along with the cough, he has had some shortness of breath with exertion. He denies fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, wheezing, and sneezing. The cough occurs mostly in the morning and improves as the day goes on. He denies similar complaints in the past and has no history of allergies. He says that his father had eczema and an allergy to eggs.

Which of the following properties of albuterol makes it a more appropriate choice than epinephrine for relief of acute episodes of bronchoconstriction?

rapid onset of action
longer duration of action
specificity for beta-1 receptors
specificity for beta-2 receptors
direct activation of both alpha- and beta-receptors

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

This patient is manifesting symptoms consistent with asthma. With the history of recently moving to a new area, along with a family history of allergies and eczema, his asthma may be further classified as allergic asthma. Episodic symptoms of cough, dyspnea, and wheezing are likely to occur. The diagnosis of asthma is made by demonstrating reversible airway obstruction. Airway obstruction is likely to be manifested by a reduction in the FEV1. An increase in the FEV1 of 15% after the use of a bronchodilator is the definition of reversibility. A CXR is most likely to be normal. Numerous cardiac conditions, such as CHF, cardiomyopathies, or pericardial effusions, may result in cardiomegaly on a CXR. Diffuse infiltrates may be seen with infections, interstitial lung disease, or other conditions. Flattened diaphragms would be consistent with prolonged obstructive lung disease, such as emphysema.

The treatment of choice for the prevention of symptoms in all stages of asthma other than mild intermittent is inhaled steroid. All patients with asthma should also have a short-acting bronchodilator for acute symptomatic relief. A leukotriene modifier would be an alternative recommendation and might be a good addition to an inhaled steroid, as they also have FDA indications for patients with allergic rhinitis.

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QUESTION: 134

A 63-year-old male presents to your office with palpitations for the past 3 weeks. He has had no chest pains or dyspnea. He has no significant medical history and takes no medications. He does not smoke cigarettes and a recent lipid panel was normal. On examination, he is in no apparent distress. His pulse is 115 bpm and irregular. His BP is 125/77. His lungs are clear and his cardiac examination reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm with no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Which of the following is most likely to be found on an ECG?

saw-tooth P waves
wide QRS complexes
absent P waves
Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF
peaked T waves

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Atrial fibrillation is the most common sustained clinical arrhythmia. It occurs in approximately 4% of the population over the age of 60. It is diagnosed by the presence of irregularly irregular QRS complexes on an ECG with an absence of P waves. The QRS complex is most commonly narrow, as this is a supraventricular arrhythmia. Wide QRS complexes can occur if there is an underlying conduction abnormality, such as Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome or a bundle branch block. Saw- tooth Pwaves occur in atrial flutter, another atrial arrhythmia that may present similarly to atrial fibrillation but which is less common. The saw-tooth P waves, or flutter waves, are representative of an atrial rate typically in the range of 300350/minute.

Not infrequently, atrial flutter will lead to atrial fibrillation. Q waves in II, III, and aVF would be seen if there had been a previous inferior MI. Peaked T waves are seen in certain conditions, such as hyperkalemia, but are not routinely associated with atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation may be precipitated by both cardiac and noncardiac conditions. Among the noncardiac conditions are metabolic abnormalities, which include hyperthyroidism. Of the tests listed, a suppressed TSH level, consistent with hyperthyroidism, would be most likely to be causative of atrial fibrillation. Troponin may be elevated in acute myocardial ischemia. Atrial fibrillation can occur following a MI, particularly when complicated by CHF. This is not consistent with the clinical scenario presented. Renal disease and diabetes may contribute to some of the conditions that can predispose to the development of atrial fibrillation, such as metabolic derangements or CAD. Acute and chronic pulmonary disease may also precipitate atrial fibrillation. In the setting of a man who is otherwise healthy and without significant medical history, new-onset atrial fibrillation would be less likely to be the initial presentation of diabetes, renal failure, or pulmonary disease than hyperthyroidism. For this reason, choice A is the single best answer of those provided.

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QUESTION: 135

A 63-year-old male presents to your office with palpitations for the past 3 weeks. He has had no chest pains or dyspnea. He has no significant medical history and takes no medications. He does not smoke cigarettes and a recent lipid panel was normal. On examination, he is in no apparent distress. His pulse is 115 bpm and irregular. His BP is 125/77. His lungs are clear and his cardiac examination reveals an irregularly irregular rhythm with no murmurs, rubs, or gallops.

An abnormal result of which of the following laboratory tests would be most likely to explain the cause of this condition?

TSH
troponin T
BUN and creatinine
serum glucose
arterial blood gas

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Atrial fibrillation is the most common sustained clinical arrhythmia. It occurs in approximately 4% of the population over the age of 60. It is diagnosed by the presence of irregularly irregular QRS complexes on an ECG with an absence of P waves. The QRS complex is most commonly narrow, as this is a supraventricular arrhythmia. Wide QRS complexes can occur if there is an underlying conduction abnormality, such as Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome or a bundle branch block. Saw- tooth Pwaves occur in atrial flutter, another atrial arrhythmia that may present similarly to atrial fibrillation but which is less common. The saw-tooth P waves, or flutter waves, are representative of an atrial rate typically in the range of 300350/minute.

Not infrequently, atrial flutter will lead to atrial fibrillation. Q waves in II, III, and aVF would be seen if there had been a previous inferior MI. Peaked T waves are seen in certain conditions, such as hyperkalemia, but are not routinely associated with atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation may be precipitated by both cardiac and noncardiac conditions. Among the noncardiac conditions are metabolic abnormalities, which include hyperthyroidism. Of the tests listed, a suppressed TSH level, consistent with hyperthyroidism, would be most likely to be causative of atrial fibrillation. Troponin may be elevated in acute myocardial ischemia. Atrial fibrillation can occur following a MI, particularly when complicated by CHF. This is not consistent with the clinical scenario presented. Renal disease and diabetes may contribute to some of the conditions that can predispose to the development of atrial fibrillation, such as metabolic derangements or CAD. Acute and chronic pulmonary disease may also precipitate atrial fibrillation. In the setting of a man who is otherwise healthy and without significant medical history, new-onset atrial fibrillation would be less likely to be the initial presentation of diabetes, renal failure, or pulmonary disease than hyperthyroidism. For this reason, choice A is the single best answer of those provided.

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USMLE STEP3 Exam (page: 27) USMLE Step3 Updated on: 16-Feb-2026

QUESTION: 131

Explanation:

QUESTION: 132

Explanation:

QUESTION: 133

Explanation:

QUESTION: 134

Explanation:

QUESTION: 135

Explanation:

USMLE STEP3 Exam (page: 27)
USMLE Step3
Updated on: 16-Feb-2026