A24-year-old male medical student is admitted to the hospital for the evaluation of a 3-month history of bloody stools. The patient has approximately six blood stained or blood streaked stools per day, associated with relatively little, if any, pain. He has not had any weight loss, and he has been able to attend classes without interruption. He denies any fecal incontinence. He has no prior medical history. Review of systems is remarkable only for occasional fevers and the fact that the patient quit smoking approximately 8 months ago. A colonoscopy is performed and reveals a granular, friable colonic mucosal surface with loss of normal vascular pattern from the anal verge to the hepatic flexure of the colon. Biopsies reveal prominent neutrophils in the epithelium and cryptitis with focal crypt abscesses, and no dysplasia. The patient is diagnosed with ulcerative colitis.While on the inpatient service, the patient is noted to have a serum alkaline phosphatase of 380 U/L and a bilirubin of 2.4 mg/dL. An ERCP is performed, and the following cholangiogram is obtained. In addition to ulcerative colitis, the patient likely has what other illness?
Answer(s): E
Oral corticosteroids are a mainstay of firstline treatment for moderate-to-severe ulcerative colitis. Starting doses of 40 mg PO daily of prednisone, with a slow taper, are often effective in reducing colonic inflammation, although some patients are unable to wean steroids or maintain remission once achieved. The patient does not have dysplasia in any biopsy specimens, nor does he have signs of systemic toxicity, so a colectomy would be premature. Oral metronidazole is ineffective in ulcerative colitis. Cortisone enemas would be helpful if the patient had isolated left-sided disease, but it is doubtful that enema therapy would reach his hepatic flexure. Intravenous cyclosporine would be used in severe colitis as a last measure before colectomy but this patient is not yet sick enough to warrant such therapy. PSC occurs in approximately 3% of patients with ulcerative colitis and is its major liver complication. It is a chronic inflammatory condition of the biliary tree. It can typically manifest with elevated alkaline phosphatase and bilirubin levels, and results in diffuse stricturing and pruning of the biliary tree. Wilson disease, hereditary hemochromatosis and alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency are not associated with ulcerative colitis and are not cholestatic liver diseases. Primary biliary cirrhosis could account for these laboratory findings, but is rare in both males and patients with ulcerative colitis. Patients with PSC are at increased risk of developing cholangiocarcinoma but not the other liver tumors mentioned. Patients with celiac sprue are at increased risk for small bowel cancers (adenocarcinoma, lymphoma). Patients with FAP are at increased risk to develop desmoid tumors.
A24-year-old male medical student is admitted to the hospital for the evaluation of a 3-month history of bloody stools. The patient has approximately six blood stained or blood streaked stools per day, associated with relatively little, if any, pain. He has not had any weight loss, and he has been able to attend classes without interruption. He denies any fecal incontinence. He has no prior medical history. Review of systems is remarkable only for occasional fevers and the fact that the patient quit smoking approximately 8 months ago. A colonoscopy is performed and reveals a granular, friable colonic mucosal surface with loss of normal vascular pattern from the anal verge to the hepatic flexure of the colon. Biopsies reveal prominent neutrophils in the epithelium and cryptitis with focal crypt abscesses, and no dysplasia. The patient is diagnosed with ulcerative colitis.In addition to an increased lifetime risk of colon cancer, the patient is also at increased risk for which of the following tumors?
A61-year-old man comes to your office for a checkup. He currently feels well and has no focal complaints. He has a past medical history significant for wellcontrolled hypertension, and his gallbladder was removed 3 years ago in the setting of acute cholecystitis. He does not smoke and drinks one to two alcoholic beverages per day. Family history is remarkable for colon cancer in his mother at age 45 and a brother at age 49. He has a sister who developed endometrial cancer at age 53. He has never undergone colon cancer screening and is interested in pursuing this. The patient's family history is strongly suggestive of which of the following?
Answer(s): B
The patient should undergo screening colonoscopy, especially with his strongly positive family history of first-degree relatives developing colon cancer before age 50. Colonoscopy is the only test that can directly evaluate the entire colon and rectum. Most polyps can be removed completely at colonoscopy, and large lesions or masses can be directly biopsied. Virtual colonoscopy and barium enema combined with flexible sigmoidoscopy are good tests, but any positive findings on either of these tests would warrant further examination with colonoscopy. Barium enema alone is insufficient for screening. Fecal occult blood testing is helpful as a screening tool, but would be inadequate alone in this patient given his family history. The patient satisfies criteria for HNPCC, a syndrome seen in patients with germline mutations in DNA mismatch repair (MMR) genes. He has three first-degree relatives with cancer of the colorectum, endometrium, small bowel, ureter, or renal pelvis (all of whom are first-degree relatives of each other). The colorectal cancers involve at least two generations and at least one case was diagnosed before age50. FAP involves a mutation of the APC gene and results in dense colonic polyposis, mandibular osteomas, and universal colon cancer at a young age unless colectomy is performed. Peutz Jeghers syndrome results in hamartomatous polyps of the gut as well as mucocutaneous pigmentation changes. Cronkhite-Canada syndrome manifests as GI polyposis, alopecia, cutaneous hyperpigmentation, malnutrition, and dystrophic fingernails. Turcot syndrome is a variant of FAP in which patients can also develop medulloblastoma, glioblastoma multiforme, and hypertrophy of retinal pigmented epithelium.
A 50-year-old female presents to your office for evaluation of solid food dysphagia without weight loss. Symptoms have been present for 6 months and are progressive. The patient has had two episodes of near impaction, but copious water ingestion and repeated swallows allowed the food bolus to pass. She has never had to present to the ER for disimpaction. She drinks five to six beers per day, loves spicy foods, and smokes a pack of cigarettes daily with a total lifetime history of 30 pack-years. She has had intermittent heartburn symptoms for years and has not sought treatment. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. Review of symptoms reveals chronic cough. Physical examination is unremarkable. Upper endoscopy reveals a distal esophageal stricture with inflammatory changes. Esophageal biopsies reveal benign mucosa with chronic inflammation. Gastric biopsies are unremarkable. Helicobacter pylori testing is negative.What is the most likely etiology of the patient's stricture?
Answer(s): C
The patient has a peptic stricture, seen in the setting of long-standing untreated gastroesophageal reflux with esophagitis. The history of progressive solid food dysphagia without weight loss is typical. Tobacco, alcohol, thiazide diuretics, and spicy foods do not predispose to benign esophageal strictures. The patient has developed a peptic stricture, a serious complication of GERD. The patient needs esophageal dilation (either with mechanical or pneumatic dilators) and maximal acid suppression. PPI therapy is superior to histamine receptor antagonist therapy in terms of healing erosive esophagitis. Patients with long-standing GERD are at increased risk of developing Barrett esophagus, a risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma. GERD is not a risk factor for esophageal squamous cell cancer, gastric cancer, or duodenal cancer. Patients with chronic H. pylori infection (which this patient did not have) are at increased risk for a form of gastric lymphoma known as a MALT-oma.
A 50-year-old female presents to your office for evaluation of solid food dysphagia without weight loss. Symptoms have been present for 6 months and are progressive. The patient has had two episodes of near impaction, but copious water ingestion and repeated swallows allowed the food bolus to pass. She has never had to present to the ER for disimpaction. She drinks five to six beers per day, loves spicy foods, and smokes a pack of cigarettes daily with a total lifetime history of 30 pack-years. She has had intermittent heartburn symptoms for years and has not sought treatment. She takes hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. Review of symptoms reveals chronic cough. Physical examination is unremarkable. Upper endoscopy reveals a distal esophageal stricture with inflammatory changes. Esophageal biopsies reveal benign mucosa with chronic inflammation. Gastric biopsies are unremarkable. Helicobacter pylori testing is negative.What is the next best step in therapy for this patient?
The patient has a peptic stricture, seen in the setting of long-standing untreated gastroesophageal reflux with esophagitis. The history of progressive solid food dysphagia without weight loss is typical. Tobacco, alcohol, thiazide diuretics, and spicy foods do not predispose to benign esophageal strictures. The patient has developed a peptic stricture, a serious complication of GERD. The patient needs esophageal dilation (either with mechanical or pneumatic dilators) and maximal acid suppression. PPI therapy is superior to histamine receptor antagonist therapy in terms of healing erosive esophagitis. Patients with long-standing GERD are at increased risk of developing Barrett esophagus, a risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma. GERD is not a risk factor for esophageal squamous cell cancer, gastric cancer, or duodenal cancer. Patients withchronic H. pylori infection (which this patient did not have) are at increased risk for a form of gastric lymphoma known as a MALT-oma.
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answer to question 72 is d [sys_user_role]
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page :20 https://exam-dumps.com/snowflake/free-cof-c02-braindumps.html?p=20#collapse_453 q 74: true or false: pipes can be suspended and resumed. true. desc.: pausing or resuming pipes in addition to the pipe owner, a role that has the following minimum permissions can pause or resume the pipe https://docs.snowflake.com/en/user-guide/data-load-snowpipe-intro
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answer 10 should be a because only a new project will be created & the organization is the same.
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question 16 should be b (changing the connector settings on the monitor) pc and monitor were powered on. the lights on the pc are on indicating power. the monitor is showing an error text indicating that it is receiving power too. this is a clear sign of having the wrong input selected on the monitor. thus, the "connector setting" needs to be switched from hdmi to display port on the monitor so it receives the signal from the pc, or the other way around (display port to hdmi).
q 10. ans is d (in the target org: open deployment settings, click edit next to the source org. select allow inbound changes and save
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question 14 - run terraform import: this is the recommended best practice for bringing manually created or destroyed resources under terraform management. you use terraform import to associate an existing resource with a terraform resource configuration. this ensures that terraform is aware of the resource, and you can subsequently manage it with terraform.
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answer 16 should be b your organizational policies require you to use virtual machines directly
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