USMLE Step3 STEP3 Dumps in PDF

Free USMLE STEP3 Real Questions (page: 19)

Vitamin D supplementation can be helpful in treating which disease?

  1. hyperparathyroidism
  2. hypoparathyroidism
  3. alcoholic neuritis
  4. pernicious anemia
  5. scurvy

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Vitamin D is actually a hormone that, along with parathyroid hormone and calcitonin, regulates plasma calcium concentration. One action of vitamin D is to increase plasma Ca2+, which can be reduced in hypoparathyroidism. Scurvy is associated with vitamin C deficiency. Alcoholic neuritis is associated with thiamine deficiency.



A34-year-old woman was found to have a 2-cm right thyroid nodule at the time of a well woman examination. The remainder of the thyroid was palpably normal and there were no lymph nodes palpable. There was no history of thyroid disease or radiation therapy to her head or neck. She was clinically euthyroid. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) was normal. Which of the following tests would be the most useful in establishing a specific diagnosis?

  1. ultrasound of the thyroid
  2. nuclear scan of the thyroid
  3. thyroid antibody studies
  4. fine needle aspiration of the nodule
  5. CT of the neck

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In evaluating a sporadic thyroid nodule in a patient who is euthyroid, it is critical to determine whether the nodule is malignant or benign. The most diagnostic test is the fine needle aspiration. Ultrasound will only distinguish between cystic and solid structures, and most nodules have some solid component. The nuclear scan will demonstrate a photopenic area in over 85% of patients. Neither these tests nor CT scan will reliably separate benign from malignant nodules. Thyroid antibody studies do not play a role in the evaluation of a thyroid nodule in a euthyroid patient. They are sometimes used in the evaluation of thyroiditis.



A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of irritability, heat intolerance, hyperdefecation, and frequent palpitations. She has lost 20 lb over the past six months. She has always been in good health and does not take any prescription or OTC medications. She denies any prior history of thyroid disease or exposure to head/neck irradiation, but she states that one of her relatives was diagnosed with a thyroid disorder at roughly the same age. Vital signs are as follows: BP 138/78, HR 112, RR 22, temp. 98.8°F. On examination, her thyroid is diffusely enlarged and smooth. Auscultation of the thyroid reveals a bruit. Her hair is fine in texture, and she has warm velvety skin. She has hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. There is a fine tremor in her outstretched hands. Which of the following is a common finding in this condition?

  1. macroglossia
  2. hyperkeratosis
  3. infiltrative ophthalmopathy
  4. cerebellar ataxia
  5. pericardial effusion

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

This patient's presentation is consistent with Graves' disease. Infiltrative ophthalmopathy is a common finding in this condition. Approximately 2040% of patients with Graves' disease possess clinically evident eye disease. Complaints include photophobia, diplopia, reduced visual acuity, and easy tearing; and, signs of corneal or conjunctival irritation are oftentimes present. Periorbital edema, chemosis, lid retraction with restricted ocular movement, proptosis, and upward gaze impairment may also be found. Optic nerve compression may also arise, leading to decreased visual acuity, visual field defects, impaired color vision, and papilledema. Macroglossia, hyperkeratosis, cerebellar ataxia, and pericardial effusion are all findings in hypothyroidism. (Ceci Textbook of Medicine, pp. 13961400) Free T3 levels are elevated in all patients with Graves' disease. Most patients also have elevated free T4 levels, but occasionally this level will remain within the normal reference range in a state known as T3 toxicosis. This generally occurs during the initial phases of Graves' disease or at the onset of a relapse. TSH levels are suppressed by the elevated thyroid hormone levels.



A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of irritability, heat intolerance, hyperdefecation, and frequent palpitations. She has lost 20 lb over the past six months. She has always been in good health and does not take any prescription or OTC medications. She denies any prior history of thyroid disease or exposure to head/neck irradiation, but she states that one of her relatives was diagnosed with a thyroid disorder at roughly the same age. Vital signs are as follows: BP 138/78, HR 112, RR 22, temp. 98.8°F. On examination, her thyroid is diffusely enlarged and smooth. Auscultation of the thyroid reveals a bruit. Her hair is fine in texture, and she has warm velvety skin. She has hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. There is a fine tremor in her outstretched hands.

Which of the following sets of laboratory results would be consistent with this patient's presentation? TSH free T3 free T4

  1. low lowhigh
  2. low normal normal
  3. low high high
  4. highlow low
  5. high high high

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

This patient's presentation is consistent with Graves' disease. Infiltrative ophthalmopathy is a common finding in this condition. Approximately 2040% of patients with Graves' disease possess clinically evident eye disease. Complaints include photophobia, diplopia, reduced visual acuity, and easy tearing; and, signs of corneal or conjunctival irritation are oftentimes present. Periorbital edema, chemosis, lid retraction with restricted ocular movement, proptosis, and upward gaze impairment may also be found. Optic nerve compression may also arise, leading to decreased visual acuity, visual field defects, impaired color vision, and papilledema. Macroglossia, hyperkeratosis, cerebellar ataxia, and pericardial effusion are all findings in hypothyroidism. (Ceci Textbook of Medicine, pp. 13961400) Free T3 levels are elevated in all patients with Graves' disease. Most patients also have elevated free T4 levels, but occasionally this level will remain within the normal reference range in a state known as T3 toxicosis. This generally occurs during the initial phases of Graves' disease or at the onset of a relapse. TSH levels are suppressed by the elevated thyroid hormone levels.



A 32-year-old woman presents with complaints of irritability, heat intolerance, hyperdefecation, and frequent palpitations. She has lost 20 lb over the past six months. She has always been in good health and does not take any prescription or OTC medications. She denies any prior history of thyroid disease or exposure to head/neck irradiation, but she states that one of her relatives was diagnosed with a thyroid disorder at roughly the same age. Vital signs are as follows: BP 138/78, HR 112, RR 22, temp. 98.8°F. On examination, her thyroid is diffusely enlarged and smooth. Auscultation of the thyroid reveals a bruit. Her hair is fine in texture, and she has warm velvety skin. She has hyperactive deep tendon reflexes. There is a fine tremor in her outstretched hands.

Which of the following interventions is most appropriate at this time?

  1. propylthiouracil
  2. thyroidectomy
  3. radioactive iodine therapy
  4. propranolol
  5. potassium iodide

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

This patient's presentation is consistent with Graves' disease. Infiltrative ophthalmopathy is a common finding in this condition. Approximately 2040% of patients with Graves' disease possess clinically evident eye disease. Complaints include photophobia, diplopia, reduced visual acuity, and easy tearing; and, signs of corneal or conjunctival irritation are oftentimes present. Periorbital edema, chemosis, lid retraction with restricted ocular movement, proptosis, and upward gaze impairment may also be found. Optic nerve compression may also arise, leading to decreased visual acuity, visual field defects, impaired color vision, and papilledema. Macroglossia, hyperkeratosis, cerebellar ataxia, and pericardial effusion are all findings in hypothyroidism. (Ceci Textbook of Medicine, pp. 13961400) Free T3 levels are elevated in all patients with Graves' disease. Most patients also have elevated free T4 levels, but occasionally this level will remain within the normal reference range in a state known as T3 toxicosis. This generally occurs during the initial phases of Graves' disease or at the onset of a relapse. TSH levels are suppressed by the elevated thyroid hormone levels.



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A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

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L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

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J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

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S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

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P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
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D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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T
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10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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V
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8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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M
Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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A
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