USMLE Step2 STEP2 Exam Questions in PDF

Free USMLE STEP2 Dumps Questions (page: 16)

A 23-year-old man presents complaining of severe crampy abdominal pain and blood in his stool over the past 2 days. Asimilar episode occurred a few months ago and spontaneously resolved. No history of travel. Abdominal x-ray shows mild colonic dilatation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. ulcerative colitis
  2. viral gastroenteritis
  3. irritable bowel syndrome
  4. celiac sprue
  5. Whipple disease

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Ulcerative colitis typically presents between the ages of 15 and 25 years with symptoms of diarrhea with blood and abdominal pain. Involvement begins in the rectum and is limited to the colon. The recurrent episodes and hematochezia make inflammatory bowel disease most likely.



A60-year-old man presents with a nonproductive cough for a week and generalized malaise. He also has noted some abdominal pain associated with diarrhea for the past few days. His temperature is 101.5°F a nd clinical examination is unremarkable. ACXR shows a left lower lobe infiltrate. His urinalysis shows 50 RBCs, and his BUN (30) and creatinine (1.6) are both mildly elevated. In light of the extrapulmonary symptoms and signs, which of the following is the most likely cause of his pneumonia?

  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. S. aureus
  3. H. influenzae
  4. S. pneumoniae
  5. Legionella

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

The spectrum of infection with Legionella organisms ranges from asymptomatic seroconversion to Pontiac fever (a flu-like illness) to full-blown pneumonia. Cough is usually nonproductive initially. Malaise, myalgia, and headache are common. The diagnosis of Legionella infection is suggested by extrapulmonary signs and symptoms, including diarrhea, abdominal pain, azotemia, and hematuria.



A63-year-old man with chronic bronchitis presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath. He is dyspneic, his respiratory rate is 32/min, and he has peripheral cyanosis. A chest examination reveals increased anteroposterior diameter and scattered rhonchi, but no wheezes or evidence of consolidation. His ABG determinations on room air are pH of 7.36, arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) of 40 mmHg, and PaCO2 of 47 mmHg. He is given oxygen by face mask while awaiting a CXR. His respiratory rate falls to 12/min,but his ABGs on oxygen are now pH of 7.31, PaO2 of 62 mmHg, and PaCO2 of 58 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

  1. repeat the ABG
  2. initiate mechanical ventilation
  3. obtain a CXR
  4. check the oxygen delivery system
  5. decrease the fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2)

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

Patients with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are at risk for development of acute respiratory failure. Common precipitants are infections, increased secretions, and superimposed bronchospasm. Oxygen therapy is effective in reversing the hypoxemia associated with respiratory failure.
Arisk of such therapy peculiar to patients with
COPD is worsening hypercapnia. Affected patients are thought to have lost their respiratory center's sensitivity to hypercapnia, so that their primary stimulus to breathe is hypoxemia. When the hypoxemia is corrected, they may lose their stimulus to breathe and develop carbon dioxide narcosis with worsening acidosis, confusion, stupor, and eventually coma. Because of this, the usual approach is to begin with a low fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO2) and increase gradually. Serial ABGs are obtained to ensure that as PaO2 improves,



A26-year-old man presents with a hard, painless testicular mass. At operation, frozen section reveals testicular cancer. Which of the following is a risk factor?

  1. family history of testicular cancer
  2. masturbation
  3. prior history of radiation exposure
  4. cryptorchidism
  5. maternal diethylstilbestrol (DES) during pregnancy

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men between the ages of 20 and 40. Predisposing factors include cryptorchidism, hernias, and testicular atrophy. Abdominal testes are at higher risk than inguinal cryptorchid testes. Family history of testicular or prostate cancer, radiation exposure, or maternal DES seems to play no role. Testicular cancers are divided into nonseminoma and seminoma subtypes.
Seminoma represents about 50% of all tumors and generally follows a more indolent course. The primary tumor is treated by inguinal orchiectomy regardless of cell type. Pure seminomas do not require retroperitoneal lymph node dissection, because radiation is usually adequate therapy. Nonseminomatous testicular tumors (embryonal cell, teratocarcinoma, choriocarcinoma, endodermal sinus) are usually treated by retroperitoneal dissection. Serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and hCG levels are markers that are important for diagnosis and as prognostic indicators and are used to monitor therapy. Serum LDH level is often elevated with bulky tumors but is not as specific as either AFP or hCG. CEA is a nonspecific marker elaborated by many adenocarcinomas. PSA is a marker associated with prostate cancer



A26-year-old man presents with a hard, painless testicular mass. At operation, frozen section reveals testicular cancer. Which of the following is a risk factor? What is the most common cell type in testicular cancer?

  1. choriocarcinoma
  2. embryonal cell
  3. seminoma
  4. teratocarcinoma
  5. endodermal sinus

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Testicular cancer is the most common cancer in men between the ages of 20 and 40. Predisposing factors include cryptorchidism, hernias, and testicular atrophy. Abdominal testes are at higher risk than inguinal cryptorchid testes. Family history of testicular or prostate cancer, radiation exposure, or maternal DES seems to play no role. Testicular cancers are divided into nonseminoma and seminoma subtypes.
Seminoma represents about 50% of all tumors and generally follows a more indolent course. The primary tumor is treated by inguinal orchiectomy regardless of cell type. Pure seminomas do not require retroperitoneal lymph node dissection, because radiation is usually adequate therapy. Nonseminomatous testicular tumors (embryonal cell, teratocarcinoma, choriocarcinoma, endodermal sinus) are usually treated by retroperitoneal dissection. Serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) and hCG levels are markers that are important for diagnosis and as prognostic indicators and are used to monitor therapy. Serum LDH level is often elevated with bulky tumors but is not as specific as either AFP or hCG. CEA is a nonspecific marker elaborated by many adenocarcinomas. PSA is a marker associated with prostate cancer



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

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Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

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Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

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Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

i need to pass exam for VMware 2V0-11.25

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

great dumps to practice for the exam

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Adekunle willaims
6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

How reliable and relevant are these questions?? also i can see the last update here was January and definitely new questions would have emerged.

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