US Green Building Council LEED AP Operations + Maintenance LEED-AP-O-M Dumps in PDF

Free US Green Building Council LEED-AP-O-M Real Questions (page: 2)

What is the allowed maximum tenant space exclusion for Energy and Atmosphere Prerequisite, Minimum Energy Performance?

  1. 10% of the vacant space
  2. 10% of the gross floor area
  3. 10% of the project site area
  4. 10% of the regularly occupied area

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The LEED AP Operations + Maintenance (LEED AP O+M) V4.1 guide specifies that for the Energy and Atmosphere Prerequisite, Minimum Energy Performance, the allowed maximum tenant space exclusion is 10% of the gross floor area. This means that when calculating energy performance, up to 10% of the total floor area of the building can be excluded. This could be due to various reasons such as spaces being unoccupied or not in use.


Reference:

LEED v4: Building Operations + Maintenance Guide, LEED v4: Building Design + Construction Guide, Minimum Energy Performance Calculator - ASHRAE 90.1 - 2010, LEED v4 energy update ­ U.S. Green Building Council

The Energy and Atmosphere Prerequisite, Minimum Energy Performance, allows for certain exclusions to accommodate diverse building types and uses. One such provision permits the exclusion of up to 10% of the gross floor area (GFA) from the energy performance calculations. This allowance is designed to provide flexibility for spaces that may not be fully occupied or operational during the performance period, such as tenant spaces undergoing renovation or spaces with atypical energy usage. By excluding a limited portion of the GFA, the prerequisite acknowledges the variability in building occupancy and use, ensuring that the energy performance assessment is both fair and representative of the building's typical operations.


The allowance for excluding up to 10% of the gross floor area from the energy performance calculations is detailed in the LEED for Building Operations and Maintenance reference guide, specifically under the Energy and Atmosphere Prerequisite, Minimum Energy Performance. This guideline is part of the LEED AP O+M training materials, which emphasize the importance of accommodating diverse building uses and occupancy levels in the pursuit of sustainable building operations.



The measures called out on the following site plan may contribute to the achievement of which LEED credits?
(Click on Exhibit)

Exhibit

  1. Sustainable Sites Credit, Rainwater Management; Sustainable Sites Credit, Light Pollution Reduction
  2. Sustainable Sites Credit, Rainwater Management; Sustainable Sites Credit, Heat Island Reduction
  3. Sustainable Sites Credit, Rainwater Management; Location and Transportation Credit, Alternative Transportation
  4. Sustainable Sites Credit, Rainwater Management; Indoor Environmental Quality Credit, Integrated Pest
    Management

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The site plan includes measures for managing rainwater and reducing heat islands. Rain gardens and permeable surfaces are indicated, contributing to the Sustainable Sites Credit for Rainwater Management. The inclusion of parking under the solar canopy contributes to the Heat Island Reduction credit by providing shade and reducing surface temperatures.


Reference:

LEED AP O+M Exam

The site plan provided indicates two distinct sustainability measures: rainwater management and vegetated roof implementation. Rainwater management pertains to strategies that manage and mitigate the impacts of rainfall runoff. It contributes to the Sustainable Sites Credit for Rainwater Management by reducing runoff volume and improving water quality, which is in line with LEED requirements for managing precipitation on-site. Additionally, the presence of a vegetated roof, as shown in the plan, is a strategy for mitigating heat islands. This contributes to the Sustainable Sites Credit for Heat Island Reduction, which aims to minimize the impact on microclimates and human and wildlife habitats by reducing heat-absorbing surfaces.


The LEED BD+C Reference Guide, specifically the Sustainable Sites (SS) category, outlines the importance of rainwater management and heat island reduction strategies. These are fundamental aspects covered in the LEED AP O+M training materials, which emphasize site sustainability as a critical component of the overall sustainability of a building project.



Buildings account for what percentage of total energy use?

  1. 30%
  2. 40%
  3. 50%
  4. 60%

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Buildings account for 40% of total energy use in the U.S., according to the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency1. This is consistent with the global estimate by the International Energy Agency, which states that buildings and construction sector accounted for 36% of final energy use in 20182.


Reference:

LEED AP O+M Exam Guide, page 305; LEED v4.1 O+M Reference Guide, page 97.

Buildings are one of the primary consumers of energy worldwide, and they account for a significant percentage of total energy use. The correct percentage is 40%, which encompasses energy used for heating, cooling, lighting, and operating buildings. This figure reflects the extensive impact that building design, construction, and operations have on energy consumption and the potential for energy savings in this sector.


The figure that buildings account for 40% of total energy use is a commonly cited statistic in the field of sustainability and is mentioned in LEED training materials and documentation. It is a crucial factor that drives the Energy and Atmosphere (EA) category within the LEED rating systems, pushing for strategies that reduce energy consumption and improve building energy performance.



A project owner has hired a Commissioning Authority (CxA) to develop a Commissioning (Cx) Plan which will be submitted in the LEED application to document Energy and Atmosphere Credit, Existing Building Commissioning -

Analysis, Option 1. Existing Building Commissioning. At a minimum, what should be included in the Cx Plan?

  1. Cx program overview, project team members, and process activities
  2. Energy Use Breakdown, project team members, and Capital Improvements Measures
  3. Low and No Cost Improvements, Energy Use Breakdown, and Capital Improvements Measures
  4. Cx process activities, Water efficiency optimization strategies, and Energy Use Breakdown

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

LEED v4.1 O+M Reference Guide, page 101; LEED AP O+M Exam Guide, page 306. The Commissioning (Cx) Plan is a foundational document that outlines the scope and activities of the commissioning process. At a minimum, the plan should include an overview of the Cx program, which details the objectives and goals, the roles and responsibilities of the project team members involved in the commissioning process, and the sequence and timing of process activities. This ensures that all stakeholders understand the commissioning process and are aligned with its implementation.


Reference:

The requirements for the contents of a Commissioning Plan are detailed in the Energy and Atmosphere Credit for Existing Building Commissioning under the LEED for Building Operations and Maintenance (O+M) reference guide. It is also highlighted in the LEED AP O+M training materials that a comprehensive Cx Plan is integral to documenting the systematic process of ensuring building systems perform interactively and efficiently.



According to Indoor Environmental Quality Credit, Daylight and Quality Views, what is the view factor in the diagram below?

  1. View Factor 1
  2. View Factor 2
  3. View Factor 4
  4. View Factor 5

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The view factor is the percentage of the floor area that has a direct line of sight to the perimeter vision glazing. According to the LEED Reference Guide for Building Operations and Maintenance, the view factor for the diagram below is 2, which means that 75% or more of the floor area has a direct line of sight to the perimeter vision glazing.


Reference:

LEED Reference Guide for Building Operations and Maintenance, v4 Edition, Indoor Environmental Quality, Daylight and Quality Views, page 5811



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

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Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

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Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

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Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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