Test Prep Section Four : Writing Sample MCAT Section 4: Writing Sample Dumps in PDF

Free Test Prep MCAT Section 4: Writing Sample Real Questions (page: 3)

The time has come to acknowledge the ascendancy of the humanistic psychology movement. The so-called "Third Stream" emerged at mid-century, asserting itself against the opposition of a pair of mighty, long- established currents, psychoanalysis and behaviorism. The hostility between these two older schools, as well as divisiveness within each of them, probably helped enable humanistic psychology to survive its early years. But the movement flourished because of its wealth of insights into the nature of this most inexact science.
Of the three major movements in the course of 20th century psychology, psychoanalysis is the oldest and most introspective. Conceived by Sigmund Freud as a means of treating mental and emotional disorders, psychoanalysis is based on the theory that people experience unresolved emotional conflicts in infancy and early childhood. Years later, although these experiences have largely disappeared from conscious awareness, they may continue to impair a person's ability to function in daily life. The patient experiences improvement when the psychoanalyst eventually unlocks these long-repressed memories of conflict and brings them to the patient's conscious awareness.
In the heyday of behaviorism, which occurred between the two world wars, the psychoanalytic movement was heavily criticized for being too concerned with inner subjective experience. Behavioral psychologists, dismissing ideas and feelings as unscientific, tried to deal only with observable and quantifiable facts. They perceived the human being merely as an organism which generated responses to stimuli produced by its body and the environment around it. Patients' neuroses no longer needed analysis; they could instead by modified by behavioral conditioning. Not even babies were safe: B.F. Skinner devised a container in which infants could be raised under "ideal" conditions ­ if a sound-proof box can be considered the ideal environment for child-rearing.
By mid-century, a number of psychologists had grown dissatisfied with both the deterministic Freudian perspective and the mechanistic approach of behaviorism. They questioned the idea that human personality becomes permanently fixed in the first few years of life. They wondered if the purpose of psychology was really to reduce people to laboratory specimens. Was it not instead possible that human beings are greater than the sum of their parts? That psychology should speak to their search for fulfillment and meaning in life?
It is questions like these that members of the Third Stream have sought to address. While the movement cannot be simplified down to a single theoretical position, it does spring from certain fundamental propositions. Humanistic psychologists believe that conscious experience, rather than outward behavior, is the proper subject of psychology. We recognize that each human being is unique, capable of change and personal growth. We see maturity as a process dependent on the establishment of a set of values and the development of self. And we believe that the more aspects of self which are satisfactorily developed, the more positive the individual's self-image.
Abraham Maslow, a pioneer of the Third Stream, articulated a hierarchy of basic human needs, starting with food, water and air, progressing upward through shelter and security, social acceptance and belonging, to love, esteem and self-expression. Progress toward the higher stages cannot occur until all of the more basic needs have been satisfied. Individuals atop the pyramid, having developed their potential to the highest possible extent, are said to be "self-actualized".
If this humanist theoretical perspective is aimed at empowering the individual, so too are the movement's efforts in the practical realm of clinical psychology. Believing that traditional psychotherapists tend to lead patients toward predetermined resolutions of their problems, Carl Rogers pressed for objective evaluations of both the process and outcome of psychotherapeutic treatment. Not content to function simply as a reformer, Rogers also pioneered the development of "client-centered" or nondirective therapy, which emphasizes the autonomy of the client (i.e., patient). In client-centered therapy, clients choose the subjects for discussion, and are encouraged to create their own solutions to their problems.

  1. F. Skinner is mentioned in the passage to support the point that:
  2. the ultimate goal of behaviorism is technological innovation.
  3. raising babies in isolation prevents childhood conflicts.
  4. stimulus-response conditioning was attempted on all sorts of individuals.
  5. behaviorists reject the scientific validity of subjective experience.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

This asks why B.F. Skinner is mentioned in the passage. This issue was already addressed during the Explanations for question 10.
B.F. Skinner is mentioned in the final sentence of paragraph 3, which concerns the behaviorist school of psychology. Earlier in that paragraph, the author says that for behaviorists, people were nothing more than organisms who responded to stimuli, and who could be conditioned to generate ideal behavior. Then, in the final sentence of the paragraph, the author says, "Not even babies were safe from this kind of reasoning," and proceeds to mention Skinner and his baby box, which supposedly raised infants under "ideal" conditions. Clearly, the author is treating Skinner ironically. To the author, Skinner is an extreme example of how behaviorists eagerly tried to apply their conditioning process to people of all ages. This highlights choice (C) as the correct answer ­ stimulus-response was attempted on all sorts of individuals. A quick review of the other answers confirms this choice. Choice (A) states Skinner was mentioned to support the point that technological innovation is the ultimate goal of behaviorism. But the author never mentions whether or not behaviorism had an ultimate goal. The passage's only definitive statement (located in the second sentence of paragraph 3) about the movement is that behaviorists tried to deal only with observable, quantifiable behavior. Furthermore, there's no mention of technological innovation in the passage and, given the author's tone in the statement, "not even babies were safe", there's no reason to think that the author would consider the Skinner box an example of "technological innovation". Choice (B) is nonsensical. Skinner himself may have hoped to show that infants could be raised under ideal conditions, free of conflicts, but the author does not write to support this point. Again, the author's tone suggests otherwise. Choice (D) is wrong because Skinner's box has little to do with behaviorists' rejection of subjective experience. That behaviorists reject subjective experience as unscientific is given, not a point that needs to be supported, proven, or argued at all. Skinner's box was an experiment in conditioning, and its inventor's hope was that if infants could be properly conditioned, they would grow up healthier.



The time has come to acknowledge the ascendancy of the humanistic psychology movement. The so-called "Third Stream" emerged at mid-century, asserting itself against the opposition of a pair of mighty, long- established currents, psychoanalysis and behaviorism. The hostility between these two older schools, as well as divisiveness within each of them, probably helped enable humanistic psychology to survive its early years. But the movement flourished because of its wealth of insights into the nature of this most inexact science.
Of the three major movements in the course of 20th century psychology, psychoanalysis is the oldest and most introspective. Conceived by Sigmund Freud as a means of treating mental and emotional disorders, psychoanalysis is based on the theory that people experience unresolved emotional conflicts in infancy and early childhood. Years later, although these experiences have largely disappeared from conscious awareness, they may continue to impair a person's ability to function in daily life. The patient experiences improvement when the psychoanalyst eventually unlocks these long-repressed memories of conflict and brings them to the patient's conscious awareness.
In the heyday of behaviorism, which occurred between the two world wars, the psychoanalytic movement was heavily criticized for being too concerned with inner subjective experience. Behavioral psychologists, dismissing ideas and feelings as unscientific, tried to deal only with observable and quantifiable facts. They perceived the human being merely as an organism which generated responses to stimuli produced by its body and the environment around it. Patients' neuroses no longer needed analysis; they could instead by modified by behavioral conditioning. Not even babies were safe: B.F. Skinner devised a container in which infants could be raised under "ideal" conditions ­ if a sound-proof box can be considered the ideal environment for child-rearing.
By mid-century, a number of psychologists had grown dissatisfied with both the deterministic Freudian perspective and the mechanistic approach of behaviorism. They questioned the idea that human personality becomes permanently fixed in the first few years of life. They wondered if the purpose of psychology was really to reduce people to laboratory specimens. Was it not instead possible that human beings are greater than the sum of their parts? That psychology should speak to their search for fulfillment and meaning in life?
It is questions like these that members of the Third Stream have sought to address. While the movement cannot be simplified down to a single theoretical position, it does spring from certain fundamental propositions. Humanistic psychologists believe that conscious experience, rather than outward behavior, is the proper subject of psychology. We recognize that each human being is unique, capable of change and personal growth. We see maturity as a process dependent on the establishment of a set of values and the development of self. And we believe that the more aspects of self which are satisfactorily developed, the more positive the individual's self-image.
Abraham Maslow, a pioneer of the Third Stream, articulated a hierarchy of basic human needs, starting with food, water and air, progressing upward through shelter and security, social acceptance and belonging, to love, esteem and self-expression. Progress toward the higher stages cannot occur until all of the more basic needs have been satisfied. Individuals atop the pyramid, having developed their potential to the highest possible extent, are said to be "self-actualized".
If this humanist theoretical perspective is aimed at empowering the individual, so too are the movement's efforts in the practical realm of clinical psychology. Believing that traditional psychotherapists tend to lead patients toward predetermined resolutions of their problems, Carl Rogers pressed for objective evaluations of both the process and outcome of psychotherapeutic treatment. Not content to function simply as a reformer, Rogers also pioneered the development of "client-centered" or nondirective therapy, which emphasizes the autonomy of the client (i.e., patient). In client-centered therapy, clients choose the subjects for discussion, and are encouraged to create their own solutions to their problems.
According to the passage, the ultimate goal of Carl Rogers's client-centered therapy is:

  1. simplification of the Third Stream's theoretical perspective.
  2. self-directed personal growth for the client.
  3. rejection of Maslow's scheme of self-actualization.
  4. increased autonomy of psychotherapists.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

This asks you to identify the ultimate goal of Carl Rogers's client-centered therapy, which is discussed in the final paragraph of the passage. The author says in sentence 3 of the final paragraph that Rogers's therapy, unlike traditional psychoanalysis, emphasized client autonomy, or independence. The author goes on to say that Rogers's clients were encouraged to pick the topics they wanted to discuss, and to create their own solutions to their problems.
This tells us that Rogers wants his clients to do the ork, to take control of their own destiny, engage themselves in their own process of growth and change. This idea is restated in choice (B), the correct answer. Rogers encouraged clients to direct their own personal growth, and solve their own problems, rather than be forced to accept the deterministic Freudian approach or other preconceived viewpoints of therapists. As for the incorrect choices, (A) is completely inaccurate. The work of Carl Rogers is noted as an addition to the humanist theoretical perspective, not as a simplification of it. Refer to the first sentence of the final paragraph: the author says that not only have humanists made theoretical contributions, but they have made practical ones as well, and proceeds to discuss Rogers. As for choice (C), Maslow's scheme of self-actualization is described in the last sentence of paragraph 6. A self-actualized individual is one who has developed his or her potential to the fullest possible extent. Rogers's therapy is not aimed at rejecting this self-actualization process but at enhancing it; his work is not discussed in opposition to that of Maslow. If anything, Rogers's therapy might be an attempt to enhance the work of his fellow humanist, Maslow. And choice (D), finally, is the exact opposite of Rogers's approach. The goal of Rogers's therapy is not increased autonomy or independence for therapists, but for clients, or patients.



The time has come to acknowledge the ascendancy of the humanistic psychology movement. The so-called "Third Stream" emerged at mid-century, asserting itself against the opposition of a pair of mighty, long- established currents, psychoanalysis and behaviorism. The hostility between these two older schools, as well as divisiveness within each of them, probably helped enable humanistic psychology to survive its early years. But the movement flourished because of its wealth of insights into the nature of this most inexact science.
Of the three major movements in the course of 20th century psychology, psychoanalysis is the oldest and most introspective. Conceived by Sigmund Freud as a means of treating mental and emotional disorders, psychoanalysis is based on the theory that people experience unresolved emotional conflicts in infancy and early childhood. Years later, although these experiences have largely disappeared from conscious awareness, they may continue to impair a person's ability to function in daily life. The patient experiences improvement when the psychoanalyst eventually unlocks these long-repressed memories of conflict and brings them to the patient's conscious awareness.
In the heyday of behaviorism, which occurred between the two world wars, the psychoanalytic movement was heavily criticized for being too concerned with inner subjective experience. Behavioral psychologists, dismissing ideas and feelings as unscientific, tried to deal only with observable and quantifiable facts. They perceived the human being merely as an organism which generated responses to stimuli produced by its body and the environment around it. Patients' neuroses no longer needed analysis; they could instead by modified by behavioral conditioning. Not even babies were safe: B.F. Skinner devised a container in which infants could be raised under "ideal" conditions ­ if a sound-proof box can be considered the ideal environment for child-rearing.
By mid-century, a number of psychologists had grown dissatisfied with both the deterministic Freudian perspective and the mechanistic approach of behaviorism. They questioned the idea that human personality becomes permanently fixed in the first few years of life. They wondered if the purpose of psychology was really to reduce people to laboratory specimens. Was it not instead possible that human beings are greater than the sum of their parts? That psychology should speak to their search for fulfillment and meaning in life?
It is questions like these that members of the Third Stream have sought to address. While the movement cannot be simplified down to a single theoretical position, it does spring from certain fundamental propositions. Humanistic psychologists believe that conscious experience, rather than outward behavior, is the proper subject of psychology. We recognize that each human being is unique, capable of change and personal growth. We see maturity as a process dependent on the establishment of a set of values and the development of self. And we believe that the more aspects of self which are satisfactorily developed, the more positive the individual's self-image.
Abraham Maslow, a pioneer of the Third Stream, articulated a hierarchy of basic human needs, starting with food, water and air, progressing upward through shelter and security, social acceptance and belonging, to love, esteem and self-expression. Progress toward the higher stages cannot occur until all of the more basic needs have been satisfied. Individuals atop the pyramid, having developed their potential to the highest possible extent, are said to be "self-actualized".
If this humanist theoretical perspective is aimed at empowering the individual, so too are the movement's efforts in the practical realm of clinical psychology. Believing that traditional psychotherapists tend to lead patients toward predetermined resolutions of their problems, Carl Rogers pressed for objective evaluations of both the process and outcome of psychotherapeutic treatment. Not content to function simply as a reformer, Rogers also pioneered the development of "client-centered" or nondirective therapy, which emphasizes the autonomy of the client (i.e., patient). In client-centered therapy, clients choose the subjects for discussion, and are encouraged to create their own solutions to their problems.
Psychoanalysts and humanistic psychologists would be most likely to disagree about:

  1. the effects of internal conflicts on childhood behavior.
  2. the necessity of proper training for psychologists.
  3. the relevance and utility of clinical psychology.
  4. the significance of conscious experience.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

This asks the reader to identify an issue that psychoanalysts and humanistic psychologists would be most likely to disagree about. Choice A suggests the most likely point of disagreement would be the effects of internal conflicts on childhood behavior. As noted in the second sentence of paragraph 2, psychoanalytic theory places great importance on the unresolved emotional conflicts of childhood. Psychoanalysts believe that these conflicts determine, to a great extent, an individual's behavior and personality. But, according to the first two sentences of paragraph 3 and the body of paragraph 4, humanists find this psychoanalytic perspective too rigid and deterministic. While recognizing that such conflicts affect the individual's behavior, humanists believe that people of all ages are capable of changing their behavior through understanding and the effort of will. Choice A represents a point of contention and is the correct answer.
There is no basis for inferring choice B. The author never discusses the subject of proper training for psychologists, whether they be psychoanalysts, behaviorists, or humanists. So it is inappropriate to say that this is the subject psychoanalysts and humanists would be "most likely" to disagree about. Choice C states that psychoanalysts and humanists would disagree about the usefulness and importance of clinical psychology. The passage states, however, that both groups practice psychotherapy, which is a form of clinical psychology.
Psychoanalysts practice psychoanalysis, and paragraph 7 indicates that humanists such as Carl Rogers have also made distinguished contributions to clinical psychology. Since both Freudian psychoanalysis and humanist approaches such as Rogers's client-centered therapy are forms of clinical psychology, we can conclude that both schools believe in the importance of clinical psychology, though they differ with regard to what they would consider the most effective therapy styles or perspectives. So, choice C is incorrect. As for choice D, we know from the third sentence of paragraph 5 that humanists believe conscious experience to be the one proper
subject of study in psychology. It appears that psychoanalysts feel much the same way. The last sentence of paragraph 2 says that psychoanalysts sought to bring repressed memories to patients' conscious awareness.
Both types of psychologists are concerned about conscious experience. Choice D would not be the most probable subject of disagreement between psychologists.



Due to ever-increasing paranoia about the transmission of hepatitis and AIDS via blood transfusions and the frequent difficulty of procuring matching blood donors for patients, researchers have been working at a feverish pace to produce disease-free and easy-to-use blood substitutes. The difficulty most synthetic blood researches have had is in formulating a substance that combines qualities of sterility, high capacity for carrying oxygen to body tissues, and versatility within the human body. Three major substitute technologies have been developed to date; each has certain advantages and shortcomings.
"Red blood," the first of the blood substitute technologies, is derived from hemoglobin which has been recycled from old, dead, or worn-out red blood cells and modified so that it can carry oxygen outside the red blood cell. Hemoglobin, a complex protein, is the blood's natural oxygen carrier and is attractive to scientists for use in synthetic blood because of its oxygen-carrying capacity. However, hemoglobin can sometimes constitute a two- fold threat to humans when it is extracted from the red blood cell and introduced to the body in its naked form. First, hemoglobin molecules are rarely sterile and often remain contaminated by viruses to which they were exposed in the cell. Second, naked hemoglobin is extremely dangerous to the kidneys, causing blood flow at these organs to shut down and leading, ultimately, to renal failure. Additional problems arise from the fact that hemoglobin is adapted to operate optimally within the intricate environment of the red blood cell. Stripped of the protection of the cell, the hemoglobin molecule tends to suffer breakdown within several hours. Although modification has produced more durable hemoglobin molecules which do not cause renal failure, undesired side effects continue to plague patients and hinder the development of hemoglobin-based blood substitutes.
Another synthetic blood alternative, "white blood," is dependent on laboratory synthesized chemicals called perfluorocarbons (PFCs). Unlike blood, PFCs are clear oil like liquids, yet they are capable of absorbing quantities of oxygen up to 50% of their volume, enough of an oxygen carrying potential for oxygen-dependent organisms to survive submerged in the liquid for hours by "breathing" it. Although PFCs imitate real blood by effectively absorbing oxygen, scientists are primarily interested in them as constituents of blood substitutes because they are inherently safer to use than hemoglobin-based substitutes. PFCs do not interact with any chemicals in the body and can be manufactured in near-perfect sterility. The primary pitfall of PFCs is in their tendency to form globules in plasma that can block circulation. Dissolving PFCs in solution can mitigate globulation; however, this procedure also seriously curtails the PFCs' oxygen capacity.
The final and perhaps most ambitious attempt to form a blood substitute involves the synthesis of a modified version of human hemoglobin by genetically-altered bacteria. Fortunately, this synthetic hemoglobin seems to closely mimic the qualities of sterility, and durability outside the cellular environment, and the oxygen-carrying efficiency of blood. Furthermore, researchers have found that if modified hemoglobin genes are added to bacterial DNA, the bacteria will produce the desired product in copious quantities. This procedure is extremely challenging, however, because it requires the isolation of the human gene for the production of hemoglobin, and the modification of the gene to express a molecule that works without support from a living cell.
While all the above technologies have serious drawbacks and difficulties, work to perfect an ideal blood substitute continues. Scientists hope that in the near future safe synthetic blood transfusions may ease blood shortages and resolve the unavailability of various blood types.
The author mentions all of the following as weaknesses of synthetic bloods EXCEPT:

  1. naked hemoglobin can cause renal failure in humans.
  2. "red blood" can transmit viruses to a recipient.
  3. genetic engineering can be extremely difficult.
  4. "white blood" has a low oxygen-carrying potential.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

This is a detail question that requires you to identify the answer choice which is not a weakness of synthetic bloods. Choices (A) and (B) mention that naked hemoglobin can cause renal failure in humans and that "red blood'' can transmit viruses to a recipient. These facts are expressed in the second paragraph, which addresses red blood and the problems associated with it. The second half of that paragraph states that naked hemoglobin, the basis of "red blood", can constitute a two-fold threat to the human body as it can transmit viruses and is extremely dangerous to the kidneys, causing blood flow at these organs to shut down and results in renal failure. Choice (C) mentions that genetic engineering can be extremely difficult. Paragraph 4 is all about modified hemoglobin derived from genetically-altered bacteria. Its last sentence emphasizes the challenges associated with the to isolation and modification the human hemoglobin gene. Although, in theory, genetic engineering can produce near-ideal synthetic blood, you can infer that a drawback of this process is the complexity of these procedures. So choice (C) is also a weakness, and therefore does not complete this question stem. Choice (D) mentions that "white blood" has a low oxygen-carrying potential. Were this true, it certainly would be a weakness, as one of the chief criteria of synthetic blood is that it mimic blood in its high oxygen-carrying capacity. However, this statement is not true. The third paragraph, regarding "white blood,'' notes that PFCs, a primary component of "white blood", have high oxygen-carrying capacities. The second and third sentences of this paragraph state that PFCs are capable of absorbing quantities of oxygen up to 50% of their volume and imitate real blood by effectively absorbing oxygen. From this we can infer that "white blood'' is capable of transporting oxygen well. This contradicts choice (D). Since the passage never suggests that "white blood" has a low oxygen-carrying potential, choice (D) does not represent a weakness of synthetic blood and is the correct answer.



Due to ever-increasing paranoia about the transmission of hepatitis and AIDS via blood transfusions and the frequent difficulty of procuring matching blood donors for patients, researchers have been working at a feverish pace to produce disease-free and easy-to-use blood substitutes. The difficulty most synthetic blood researches have had is in formulating a substance that combines qualities of sterility, high capacity for carrying oxygen to body tissues, and versatility within the human body. Three major substitute technologies have been developed to date; each has certain advantages and shortcomings.
"Red blood," the first of the blood substitute technologies, is derived from hemoglobin which has been recycled from old, dead, or worn-out red blood cells and modified so that it can carry oxygen outside the red blood cell. Hemoglobin, a complex protein, is the blood's natural oxygen carrier and is attractive to scientists for use in synthetic blood because of its oxygen-carrying capacity. However, hemoglobin can sometimes constitute a two- fold threat to humans when it is extracted from the red blood cell and introduced to the body in its naked form. First, hemoglobin molecules are rarely sterile and often remain contaminated by viruses to which they were exposed in the cell. Second, naked hemoglobin is extremely dangerous to the kidneys, causing blood flow at these organs to shut down and leading, ultimately, to renal failure. Additional problems arise from the fact that hemoglobin is adapted to operate optimally within the intricate environment of the red blood cell. Stripped of the protection of the cell, the hemoglobin molecule tends to suffer breakdown within several hours. Although modification has produced more durable hemoglobin molecules which do not cause renal failure, undesired side effects continue to plague patients and hinder the development of hemoglobin-based blood substitutes.
Another synthetic blood alternative, "white blood", is dependent on laboratory synthesized chemicals called perfluorocarbons (PFCs). Unlike blood, PFCs are clear oil like liquids, yet they are capable of absorbing quantities of oxygen up to 50% of their volume, enough of an oxygen carrying potential for oxygen-dependent organisms to survive submerged in the liquid for hours by "breathing" it. Although PFCs imitate real blood by effectively absorbing oxygen, scientists are primarily interested in them as constituents of blood substitutes because they are inherently safer to use than hemoglobin-based substitutes. PFCs do not interact with any chemicals in the body and can be manufactured in near-perfect sterility. The primary pitfall of PFCs is in their tendency to form globules in plasma that can block circulation. Dissolving PFCs in solution can mitigate globulation; however, this procedure also seriously curtails the PFCs' oxygen capacity.
The final and perhaps most ambitious attempt to form a blood substitute involves the synthesis of a modified version of human hemoglobin by genetically-altered bacteria. Fortunately, this synthetic hemoglobin seems to closely mimic the qualities of sterility, and durability outside the cellular environment, and the oxygen-carrying efficiency of blood. Furthermore, researchers have found that if modified hemoglobin genes are added to bacterial DNA, the bacteria will produce the desired product in copious quantities. This procedure is extremely challenging, however, because it requires the isolation of the human gene for the production of hemoglobin, and the modification of the gene to express a molecule that works without support from a living cell.
While all the above technologies have serious drawbacks and difficulties, work to perfect an ideal blood substitute continues. Scientists hope that in the near future safe synthetic blood transfusions may ease blood shortages and resolve the unavailability of various blood types.
According to the passage, PFCs are helpful in the synthesis of blood substitutes because they:
I). mimic the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.
II). do not react with other body chemicals.
III). break down in the blood within several hours.

  1. I only
  2. II only
  3. I and II only
  4. II and III only

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

This addresses the identification of the "helpful" aspects of PFCs. Recall that in the third paragraph, where "white blood" and PFCs are discussed. There the passage states that PFCs imitate real blood by effectively absorbing oxygen. It is true that PFCs mimic the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood, and option I will be part of the correct answer. The third and fourth sentences of the third paragraph establish that PFCs are inherently safer to use in synthetic bloods than hemoglobin is because PFCs do not interact with any chemicals in the body. Option II, therefore, also correctly completes the question stem. Finally, option III is a false statement.
Nowhere does the passage suggest that PFCs breakdown in the blood within several hours. Rather, breakdown is mentioned as a problem associated with naked hemoglobin. Since option III is false, it cannot successfully complete the question stem. Only options I and II fit the question stem.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
6/1/2026 6:15:05 AM

Question 14:

  • Correct selections: B and E

Why:
  • B. Admin access to the deployment pipeline: This gives the developers the ability to manage and run deployments within the pipeline, enabling them to deploy content to the Development and Test stages.
  • E. Contributor access to the Development and Test workspaces: This level allows them to deploy items into the Development and Test workspaces as required, while preventing deployments to Production.

Notes:
  • If you also need the developers to view Production, grant them Viewer access to the Production workspace (not part of the two required options, but needed to satisfy the “view Production” requirement).

A
AI Tutor Explanation
6/1/2026 5:32:19 AM

Question 5:
Question 5 asks how to identify min and max values for each column in a Dataflow result.
Correct options: B and E.

  • B. Enable column profile: This turns on column profiling, which computes descriptive statistics for each column, including min and max values.
  • E. Enable details pane: With the details pane enabled, you can view the per-column profile data (including min and max) when you select a column.

Notes:
  • A (Show column value distribution) is not required for min/max; it's for distribution histograms.
  • C (Show column profile in details pane) is optional. If the details pane is already enabled (E) and column profiling is on (B), you can view the profile without explicitly enabling C.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
6/1/2026 2:03:00 AM

Question 18:
Question 18: Why not A?

  • The two recommended strategies are B and D (per the answer key):
- B: Migrate users in phases based on their functions, with parallel use of legacy and Salesforce. - D: Use a full sandbox environment and run data migration tests with real legacy data.
  • Why not A: A focuses on identifying the data to migrate and planning scripts for verifying data integrity. While important, it’s primarily a preparation/validation activity, not an active risk-mitigation step during the migration itself. The question asks for strategies that directly mitigate migration risks in practice, such as staged rollout (B) and thorough testing in a sandbox with real data (D). A does not address go-live risk, user adoption, or testing of the migration process in a controlled environment.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/16/2026 7:04:20 AM

Question 4:
Question 4 is about when to use batch processing.

  • Answer key: A (the option related to “When to use batch processing”).
  • Core idea: Batch processing is used when you can tolerate some delay and don’t need results instantly. Data is collected over a period, then processed together in a batch.

Why this is correct:
  • Latencies are expected with batch jobs. The system processes data in groups rather than as soon as data arrives.
  • The processes are often not mission-critical at the exact moment they run, so delays don’t impact operations.

Key concepts to know:
  • Batch processing vs real-time processing: Batch processes collect data and run at scheduled times or when resources are available, whereas real-time processing handles data immediately.
  • When to use batch processing:
- High-volume data where immediate results aren’t required - Tasks that can be scheduled (e.g., nightly ETL, end-of-day payroll, bulk reports) - When cost or resource utilization is optimized by processing in groups
Examples: nightly data aggregation, batch payroll processing, end-of-day reconciliations.
If you want, I can walk through how to identify the right scenario for batch vs real-time in practice.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/15/2026 9:49:16 AM

Question 5:
I can’t see the [Image] in Question 5, but I can explain the likely reasoning.

  • Correct components: SAS adapter and disk (options B and D).
  • Why: This question is about diagnosing a storage-path issue inside the node. The SAS adapter connects disks to the controller, and the disks themselves are where I/O problems or failures usually originate. The cluster switches and network interface cards are more related to the network path rather than the direct storage path, unless the symptom points to a network fault.

How to examine these two components:
  • SAS adapter
- Check link status and port mapping. - Verify firmware version and compatibility. - Inspect cabling to disk shelves and any expanders. - Look for adapter errors in system logs.
  • Disk
- Check health status for each disk (fail/degraded, SMART data). - Inspect LEDs on the disk and shelf. - Review reallocation, pending operations, and overall disk state with storage commands/logs. - Confirm hot spares and disk replacement readiness.
If you want, I can walk through the exact commands you’d use in ONTAP or a CLI.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:59:47 AM

Question 12:
Here’s why Question 12’s correct choices are C and D.

  • C (Azure DevOps, build and upload to asset library)
- What it means: Create a deployable package from a branch in Azure DevOps, then use an LCS asset upload step to push that package into the Dynamics 365 F&O asset library. - Why it’s valid: This is a standard path to prepare and publish a deployable package to LCS for deployment.
  • D (Visual Studio, create deployment package and upload)
- What it means: Use Visual Studio to generate a Dynamics 365 deployment package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. - Why it’s valid: Visual Studio can produce the deployable package, which is what LCS expects in the asset library.
Why A and B are not correct:
  • A: Visual Studio export the project and upload to asset library
- You don’t export a project to the asset library; you export a deployable package and upload that.
  • B: Azure DevOps, queue a build and upload the model to the asset library
- The asset library stores deployable packages, not models. You upload a package, not a model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:49:11 AM

Question 3:
Question 3 asks for two valid ways to meet the purchase order creation validation (warn if the vendor is on the exclusion list for the customer/product and block/alert accordingly).
Correct answers: C and D

  • C: In Application Explorer, create a form extension and implement validation.
- Extend the Purchase Order creation form and add validation logic (e.g., before save/submit) to check VendExclusions for the customer/item and show a warning or block the PO as needed.
  • D: Implement Chain of Command (CoC) and method wrapping by creating a form extension class.
- Use CoC to wrap the target PO creation method, perform the exclusion check after calling super(), and enforce the rule (warning or prevent creation).
Why not A or B?
  • A (class with a form data source event handler) is not the standard pattern for this UI-level validation scenario and is less direct for enforcing creation-time behavior.
  • B (table extension with validation) cannot sufficiently enforce the UI-level workflow or trigger user-facing warnings during PO creation.

So, the two valid techniques are C and D, reflecting the recommended form-extension patterns: direct form validation and CoC-based method wrapping.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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