Test Prep CFA® Level I Chartered Financial Analyst CFA-Level-I Dumps in PDF

Free Test Prep CFA-Level-I Real Questions (page: 25)

Which of the following AIMR Standards states that the financial analyst shall distinguish between facts and opinions in research reports?

  1. III A
  2. III D
  3. III (B.1)
  4. IV (A.2)

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Standard IV (A.2) - Research Reports states: "Members shall distinguish between facts and opinions in research reports."



Complete the following: According to The Code of Ethics, members of AIMR shall: "Practice and encourage others to practice in a professional and ethical manner that will ________ members and their profession."

  1. improve the qualifications of
  2. reflect credit on
  3. none of these answers
  4. improve the compensation of
  5. improve the access of

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

According to The Code of Ethics, members of AIMR shall: "Practice and encourage others to practice in a professional and ethical manner that will reflect credit on members and their profession."



Standard III (A) - Obligation to Inform Employer of Code & Standards - requires all AIMR members, Charterholders and CFA candidates inform their employers about their personal obligation to abide by the code. Which of the following is/are true in regard to this requirement?

  1. The notification can be in either oral form or in writing, either in print, handwriting or by electronic means like email.
    II. Notification is necessary even if the employer is publicly known to have adopted the Code of Ethics.
    III. For compliance with Standard III (A), notification must be made to the immediate employer and not necessarily senior management.
  2. III only
  3. I, II and III
  4. I and III only
  5. I and II only

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

If the employer has publicly adopted the Code of Ethics, no explicit notification is required. Otherwise, the immediate supervisor must be informed in writing about the obligation to abide by the Code. "In writing" includes any form of communication that can be documented, including email. Refer Standard III (A) - Obligation to Inform Employer of Code & Standards



According to Standard IV (B.4), Priority of Transactions: "Transactions for clients and employers shall have priority over transactions in securities or other investments of which a member is the ________ so that such personal transactions do not operate adversely to their clients' or employer's interests."

  1. material agent
  2. primary decision maker
  3. none of these answers
  4. proxy voter
  5. beneficial owner
  6. principal broker
  7. sole charterholder
  8. registered representative

Answer(s): E

Explanation:

Standard IV (B.4) deals with the Priority of Transactions. Under this standard, transactions for clients and employers shall have priority over transactions in securities or other investments of which a member is the beneficial owner so that such personal transactions do not operate adversely to their clients' or employer's interests. If members make a recommendation regarding the purchase or sale of an investment, they shall give their clients and employer adequate opportunity to act on the recommendation before acting on their own behalf.



Standard III (E) is known as ________.

  1. Prohibition against Use of Material Nonpublic Information
  2. Preservation of Confidentiality
  3. Fair Dealing
  4. Professional Misconduct
  5. Interactions with Clients and Prospects
  6. Investment Process
  7. Duty to Employer
  8. None of these answers

Answer(s): H

Explanation:

Standard III (E) is Responsibilities of Supervisors. Be sure you remember that this standard may often be cited as a violation, along with most other standards (because failure to supervise is often at the root of many of the standard violations).



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AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

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Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

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Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

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3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

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9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

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9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

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7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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5/24/2025 12:54:15 AM

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