SOCRA Certified Clinical Research Professional CCRP Dumps in PDF

Free SOCRA CCRP Real Questions (page: 5)

A sponsor's monitor is conducting a site selection visit for an interventional drug trial. In accordance with ICH GCP, which pharmacy drug storage facility information should be collected in order to determine whether the site could be selected for the trial?

  1. Number of staff members
  2. Available storage square footage
  3. Storage facility temperature range
  4. Storage cost

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Drug storage conditions are essential to maintaining investigational product (IP) integrity. According to ICH:

ICH E6(R2) 5.13.3: "The sponsor should ensure that investigational products are stored... under appropriate conditions as specified by the sponsor and in accordance with applicable regulatory requirement(s)."

ICH E6(R2) 4.6.4: "The investigator/institution should store the investigational product(s) as specified by the sponsor (and in accordance with applicable regulatory requirement(s)), and ensure that product(s) are used only in accordance with the approved protocol."

During site qualification/selection, the monitor evaluates storage conditions -- particularly temperature ranges -- to ensure the site can meet the stability requirements for the IP. Factors like staff numbers, space, and cost are operational considerations but not regulatory determinants of site qualification.

Thus, the correct answer is C (Storage facility temperature range). This ensures compliance with sponsor specifications, product stability, and ultimately subject safety.


Reference:

ICH E6(R2), §5.13.3 (Product storage requirements).

ICH E6(R2), §4.6.4 (Investigator product storage responsibilities).



Before approving a research protocol, an IRB/IEC must determine compliance with which of the following requirements?

  1. A plan for the publication of study results is in place
  2. The selection of subjects is equitable
  3. The investigator has adequate access to patients eligible for the trial
  4. The sponsor is qualified to provide oversight of the trial

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

IRB/IEC review focuses on ethical protection of human subjects. Equitable subject selection is a cornerstone principle.

45 CFR 46.111(a)(3): "In order to approve research... the IRB shall determine that: Selection of subjects is equitable."

ICH E6(R2) 3.1.2: "The IRB/IEC should safeguard the rights, safety, and well-being of all trial subjects... with particular attention to trials that may include vulnerable subjects."

Publication plans (A) are not required by IRBs. Access to patients (C) and sponsor qualifications (D) are evaluated by sponsors, not IRBs. The IRB's role is ensuring fairness, minimizing coercion, and protecting vulnerable populations.

Thus, the correct answer is B (The selection of subjects is equitable).


Reference:

45 CFR 46.111(a)(3) (Equitable subject selection).

ICH E6(R2), §3.1.2 (IRB/IEC role).



The FDA may propose to terminate an IND during a Phase I study if the FDA finds that which of the following conditions exists?

  1. The sponsor failed to submit an accurate annual report of the study to the FDA
  2. The reviewing IRB/IEC at one of the sites that is planning to enroll subjects has not yet reviewed and approved the study
  3. An investigator failed to submit safety reports to the FDA
  4. The FDA issued a clinical hold, and 30 days have elapsed

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The FDA has authority to impose clinical holds and terminations on IND studies when subject safety is at risk.

21 CFR 312.44(b)(1): "The FDA may propose to terminate an IND if it finds that human subjects would be exposed to an unreasonable and significant risk of illness or injury."

21 CFR 312.42(e): "If an IND is placed on clinical hold and the deficiencies have not been adequately addressed within 30 days, FDA may terminate the IND."

Annual reports (A) are required but noncompliance usually results in clinical hold, not immediate termination. IRB approval delays (B) do not trigger termination; the site simply cannot begin. Investigators report safety data to sponsors, not directly to FDA (C).

Thus, the correct answer is D (The FDA issued a clinical hold, and 30 days have elapsed).


Reference:

21 CFR 312.44(b)(1) (Termination of an IND).

21 CFR 312.42(e) (Clinical hold procedures).



Which of the following adverse events occurring during a study of an investigational new drug would require the sponsor to notify the FDA as soon as possible but in no case later than seven calendar days after the initial receipt of the information?

  1. Aplastic anemia requiring hospitalization, mentioned in the investigator's brochure
  2. An infection not related to the investigational drug requiring hospitalization for antibiotic therapy
  3. Death as a result of arrhythmias (irregular heart rhythm), not mentioned in the investigator's brochure and thought to be related to the use of the drug
  4. Death due to disease progression, mentioned in the investigator's brochure

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Sponsors must report serious, unexpected, and suspected adverse reactions (SUSARs) to the FDA.

21 CFR 312.32(c)(2): "Any adverse experience associated with the use of the drug that is both serious and unexpected shall be reported... as soon as possible but no later than 7 calendar days after the sponsor's initial receipt of the information, if it is fatal or life-threatening."

ICH E2A 4.2: Requires expedited reporting of life-threatening or fatal SUSARs within 7 days.

Among the options, only (C) -- death from arrhythmias not previously identified in the Investigator's Brochure and suspected to be drug-related -- meets the definition of a SUSAR requiring 7-day expedited reporting. Events already listed in the IB (A, D) or unrelated to the drug (B) do not trigger expedited reporting.

Thus, the correct answer is C.


Reference:

21 CFR 312.32(c)(2) (Expedited safety reporting).

ICH E2A, §4.2 (Expedited reporting of fatal/life-threatening adverse events).



In accordance with the ICH GCP Guideline, which of the following can an Independent Data Monitoring Committee provide?

  1. An initial review and approval of a trial
  2. Recommendations to stop a trial
  3. Suggestions for a new trial design
  4. The selection of qualified investigators

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

An Independent Data Monitoring Committee (IDMC or DSMB) is a group of independent experts established to review accumulating safety and efficacy data during a trial. Their main role is to ensure subject protection and trial integrity.

ICH E6(R2) 5.5.1: "The sponsor may consider establishing an independent data-monitoring committee (IDMC) to assess the progress of a clinical trial, including the safety data and the critical efficacy endpoints, and to recommend to the sponsor whether to continue, modify, or stop a trial."

Thus, DSMBs/IDMCs do not perform trial approvals (A), do not design trials (C), and do not select investigators (D). Their authority is strictly advisory, providing recommendations to sponsors about safety and whether continuation of the study is ethically justified. The sponsor makes the final decision, but DSMB recommendations are highly influential.

Therefore, the correct answer is B (Recommendations to stop a trial).


Reference:

ICH E6(R2), §5.5.1 (Independent Data Monitoring Committees).



For a study with a significant risk investigational medical device that could optimize the effects of radiation therapy on cancer tumors, the investigational plan states mild burns are an anticipated effect. One subject developed severe burns with blistering. In accordance with the CFR, this effect must be reported to the sponsor and the IRB/IEC as soon as possible and at most how long after the investigator first learns of the effect?

  1. 2 working days
  2. 5 working days
  3. 7 working days
  4. 10 working days

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In device trials, unanticipated adverse device effects (UADEs) must be promptly reported.

21 CFR 812.150(a)(1): "An investigator shall submit to the sponsor and the reviewing IRB a report of any unanticipated adverse device effect as soon as possible, but in no event later than 10 working days after the investigator first learns of the effect."

In this case, severe burns with blistering go beyond the anticipated effect of mild burns listed in the investigational plan. Therefore, it qualifies as a UADE and triggers expedited reporting. Options A, B, and C are too short; the regulation specifically mandates a 10 working day maximum timeframe.

Thus, the correct answer is D (10 working days).


Reference:

21 CFR 812.150(a)(1) (Reporting requirements for investigators).



A physician wants to conduct research using an approved/marketed cardiac stent for use in the carotid artery, which is not an indication for which the device is approved. In this case, the physician must obtain which of the following?

  1. The Office for Human Research Protections (OHRP) and manufacturer approvals
  2. IRB/IEC approval and an FDA IND
  3. IRB/IEC approval and an FDA IDE
  4. IRB/IEC and manufacturer approval

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

When a physician investigates a medical device for a new use (off-label indication), FDA regulations classify this as a Significant Risk Device Study, requiring an Investigational Device Exemption (IDE) in addition to IRB approval.

21 CFR 812.20(a): "A sponsor shall submit an application to FDA for an investigational device exemption (IDE) if the device is to be used in a clinical investigation to determine safety and effectiveness."

21 CFR 812.2(b): Significant Risk device studies require both FDA and IRB approval before initiation.

An IND (B) applies to drugs and biologics, not devices. Manufacturer permission (A, D) is not a regulatory requirement, although collaboration may be necessary. OHRP approval is not applicable.

Thus, the correct answer is C (IRB/IEC approval and an FDA IDE).


Reference:

21 CFR 812.20(a) (IDE submission requirements).

21 CFR 812.2(b) (Significant risk device studies).



When can the IRB/IEC require that additional information be given to subjects as part of informed consent?

  1. At any time, at the discretion of the IRB/IEC
  2. At any time, but only if the sponsor agrees that the information is essential
  3. At any time, but only if the investigator agrees that the information is essential
  4. At any time, but only if the sponsor and investigator agree that the information is essential

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The IRB/IEC is empowered to protect subjects and ensure informed consent remains accurate, complete, and understandable.

ICH E6(R2) 3.1.2: "The IRB/IEC should safeguard the rights, safety, and well-being of all trial subjects. Special attention should be paid... when considering the adequacy and completeness of the written information to be provided to the subjects."

21 CFR 56.109(b): "The IRB shall require that information given to subjects as part of informed consent is in accordance with §50.25. The IRB may require that information, in addition to that specifically mentioned in §50.25, be given to the subjects when in its judgment the information would meaningfully add to the protection of the rights and welfare of subjects."

This confirms that the IRB/IEC has unilateral authority to request additional information at any time, regardless of sponsor or investigator agreement.

Thus, the correct answer is A (At any time, at the discretion of the IRB/IEC).


Reference:

ICH E6(R2), §3.1.2 (IRB responsibilities).

21 CFR 56.109(b) (IRB review of informed consent).



Share your comments for SOCRA CCRP exam with other users:

A
Abdul SK
9/28/2023 11:42:00 PM

kindy upload

A
Aderonke
10/23/2023 12:53:00 PM

fantastic assessment on psm 1

S
SAJI
7/20/2023 2:51:00 AM

56 question correct answer a,b

R
Raj Kumar
10/23/2023 8:52:00 PM

thank you for providing the q bank

P
piyush keshari
7/7/2023 9:46:00 PM

true quesstions

B
B.A.J
11/6/2023 7:01:00 AM

i can´t believe ms asks things like this, seems to be only marketing material.

G
Guss
5/23/2023 12:28:00 PM

hi, could you please add the last update of ns0-527

R
Rond65
8/22/2023 4:39:00 PM

question #3 refers to vnet4 and vnet5. however, there is no vnet5 listed in the case study (testlet 2).

C
Cheers
12/13/2023 9:55:00 AM

sometimes it may be good some times it may be

S
Sumita Bose
7/21/2023 1:01:00 AM

qs 4 answer seems wrong- please check

A
Amit
9/7/2023 12:53:00 AM

very detailed explanation !

F
FisherGirl
5/16/2022 10:36:00 PM

the interactive nature of the test engine application makes the preparation process less boring.

C
Chiranthaka
9/20/2023 11:15:00 AM

very useful.

S
SK
7/15/2023 3:51:00 AM

complete question dump should be made available for practice.

G
Gamerrr420
5/25/2022 9:38:00 PM

i just passed my first exam. i got 2 exam dumps as part of the 50% sale. my second exam is under work. once i write that exam i report my result. but so far i am confident.

K
Kudu hgeur
9/21/2023 5:58:00 PM

nice create dewey stefen

A
Anorag
9/6/2023 9:24:00 AM

i just wrote this exam and it is still valid. the questions are exactly the same but there are about 4 or 5 questions that are answered incorrectly. so watch out for those. best of luck with your exam.

N
Nathan
1/10/2023 3:54:00 PM

passed my exam today. this is a good start to 2023.

1
1
10/28/2023 7:32:00 AM

great sharing

A
Anand
1/20/2024 10:36:00 AM

very helpful

K
Kumar
6/23/2023 1:07:00 PM

thanks.. very helpful

U
User random
11/15/2023 3:01:00 AM

i registered for 1z0-1047-23 but dumps qre available for 1z0-1047-22. help me with this...

K
kk
1/17/2024 3:00:00 PM

very helpful

R
Raj
7/24/2023 10:20:00 AM

please upload oracle 1z0-1110-22 exam pdf

B
Blessious Phiri
8/13/2023 11:58:00 AM

becoming interesting on the logical part of the cdbs and pdbs

L
LOL what a joke
9/10/2023 9:09:00 AM

some of the answers are incorrect, i would be wary of using this until an admin goes back and reviews all the answers

M
Muhammad Rawish Siddiqui
12/9/2023 7:40:00 AM

question # 267: federated operating model is also correct.

M
Mayar
9/22/2023 4:58:00 AM

its helpful alot.

S
Sandeep
7/25/2022 11:58:00 PM

the questiosn from this braindumps are same as in the real exam. my passing mark was 84%.

E
Eman Sawalha
6/10/2023 6:09:00 AM

it is an exam that measures your understanding of cloud computing resources provided by aws. these resources are aligned under 6 categories: storage, compute, database, infrastructure, pricing and network. with all of the services and typees of services under each category

M
Mars
11/16/2023 1:53:00 AM

good and very useful

R
ronaldo7
10/24/2023 5:34:00 AM

i cleared the az-104 exam by scoring 930/1000 on the exam. it was all possible due to this platform as it provides premium quality service. thank you!

P
Palash Ghosh
9/11/2023 8:30:00 AM

easy questions

N
Noor
10/2/2023 7:48:00 AM

could you please upload ad0-127 dumps

AI Tutor 👋 I’m here to help!