Snowflake SnowPro Associate Platform SOL-C01 SnowPro Associate Platform SOL-C01 Dumps in PDF

Free Snowflake SnowPro Associate Platform SOL-C01 Real Questions (page: 1)

What are computer language considerations when using Snowflake interfaces? (Select TWO).

  1. Notebook cells can be written in Python.
  2. Databases can process queries using Scala.
  3. Notebook cells can be written in SQL.
  4. Worksheets can only be written in SQL.
  5. Dashboards can be written in JavaScript.

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

Snowflake Notebooks support both SQL and Python as executable cell types. This means that users can create notebook cells written in Python for programmatic data processing and modeling, and in SQL for declarative querying and transformation. Because of this, the statements "Notebook cells can be written in Python" and "Notebook cells can be written in SQL" are both correct.

Snowflake databases do not natively execute queries written in Scala; Scala is supported via Snowpark APIs for application code, not as a direct query language. Worksheets in Snowsight are primarily SQL-based and also support procedural constructs (e.g., Snowflake Scripting), so the phrase "only in SQL" is not a precise or complete characterization. Dashboards in Snowsight are created using SQL-backed visualizations and built-in UI components; JavaScript is not a supported authoring language inside the native dashboarding layer. Therefore, options B, D, and E are not correct in this context.



What Snowflake object is used to store data?

  1. Table
  2. Virtual warehouse
  3. Stored procedure
  4. View

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A table is the core Snowflake object used to store structured data. Tables persist rows and columns in Snowflake's storage layer, which internally uses compressed, columnar micro-partitions managed by the platform. Tables can be permanent, transient, or temporary, but in every case, they are the primary objects that hold the actual data.

A virtual warehouse is a compute resource used to process queries and perform operations; it does not store user data. A stored procedure contains executable logic (such as complex workflows or procedural code) but does not serve as a data container. A view is a logical object that presents the results of a saved query; it references underlying tables and does not store its own data. As a result, "Table" is the correct answer.



Where is unstructured data stored in Snowflake?

  1. In the Cloud Services layer
  2. In internal or external stages
  3. In external tables
  4. In tables with a single VARCHAR column

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Unstructured data such as PDF files, images, and other binary documents is stored in stages in Snowflake. These stages may be internal stages, which Snowflake manages directly, or external stages, which reference external cloud storage such as Amazon S3, Azure Blob Storage, or Google Cloud Storage. Stages are the designed mechanism for storing and accessing unstructured files so that they can be processed with functions like PARSE_DOCUMENT or accessed via directory tables.

External tables are used to query structured or semi-structured data (for example, Parquet or JSON) stored in external locations, not to store raw unstructured binary content. The Cloud Services layer coordinates metadata, security, and query services; it does not store user data. Tables with a single VARCHAR column might be used as an improvised approach for small text blobs, but this is not the native or recommended method for managing unstructured data at scale.



What is the name of Snowflake's default web-based interface?

  1. SnowSQL
  2. Snowpark
  3. Snowsight
  4. Snowflake CLI

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Snowsight is the default web-based interface for Snowflake. It provides a graphical, browser-based environment to write and run SQL and Python, manage and explore database objects, create visualizations and dashboards, monitor query and warehouse activity, and collaborate via worksheets. It has replaced the Classic Console as the default UI for new Snowflake accounts.

SnowSQL is a command-line client used to connect to Snowflake from a terminal and execute SQL statements. Snowpark is a developer framework that supports writing data applications in languages like Python, Java, and Scala, but it is not a UI. "Snowflake CLI" refers to command-line tooling and automation utilities, again not a graphical web interface.



What task can be performed on the Snowsight Schema Details page?

  1. Change the schema name.
  2. Share a schema with a different account.
  3. Truncate the schema data.
  4. Edit the schema metrics.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

On the Snowsight Schema Details page, one of the supported operations is renaming the schema. The UI exposes controls that allow users with appropriate privileges to change the schema name, which can help maintain consistent naming conventions or reflect project reorganizations.

Sharing data with other accounts is typically done using secure shares at the database or object level, not from a simple "Share this schema" function on the Schema Details page. Truncation is a table- level operation (e.g., TRUNCATE TABLE), not something that applies at the schema level. Metrics visible on the Schema Details page (such as object counts or storage usage) are informational and not directly editable; they are derived from system metadata.



What is the impact of enabling auto-suspend on a Snowflake virtual warehouse?

  1. The size of the warehouse will adjust automatically, improving query performance.
  2. The warehouse will be dropped after a specified period of inactivity.
  3. The warehouse will be stopped after a specified period of inactivity, reducing costs.
  4. The warehouse costs will stabilize from month-to-month.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

When auto-suspend is enabled on a virtual warehouse, Snowflake automatically suspends (stops) the warehouse after it has been idle for the configured period of time. Once suspended, the warehouse stops consuming compute credits, thereby reducing costs, since Snowflake bills only for active compute usage.
When new queries arrive, auto-resume (if enabled) restarts the warehouse automatically.

Auto-suspend does not change the warehouse size; scaling up or down is a separate configuration. The warehouse is not dropped--its metadata and settings remain intact. Costs may be reduced and made more efficient but are not guaranteed to "stabilize month-to-month," as the bill still depends on actual usage and workload patterns.



What parameter is used to define how long Time Travel can be used to access a table?

  1. DATE_OUTPUT_FORMAT
  2. DATA_RETENTION_TIME_IN_DAYS
  3. TIMEZONE
  4. USE_CACHED_RESULT

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The DATA_RETENTION_TIME_IN_DAYS parameter controls the Time Travel retention period for Snowflake objects such as tables, schemas, and databases. It specifies the number of days that historical data (prior versions of rows or dropped objects) is retained and accessible via Time Travel. Within this retention window, users can query data "as of" a previous time, restore dropped objects, or clone objects at a historical point.

DATE_OUTPUT_FORMAT determines the display format for date values and is unrelated to historical retention. TIMEZONE affects how timestamps are interpreted and displayed, not how long data history is preserved. USE_CACHED_RESULT governs whether Snowflake may return cached query results, not Time Travel behavior.



What filter can be used when searching for data products on the Snowflake Marketplace?

  1. Size
  2. Compatibility
  3. Price
  4. Performance

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

On the Snowflake Marketplace, users can apply a Price filter when searching for data products. This filter helps distinguish between free offerings and paid listings, making it easier to align data acquisition with budget and commercial terms. Marketplace metadata includes pricing information that this filter uses to refine search results.

Dataset "Size" is not exposed as a primary Marketplace search filter. "Compatibility" is implied, as all Marketplace products are consumable within Snowflake. "Performance" is not a filterable attribute, because performance is influenced mainly by the consumer's compute configuration and query design, rather than a fixed property of the Marketplace listing.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

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