Real Estate Licensing Pennsylvania Salesperson State RePA_Sales_S Dumps in PDF

Free Real Estate Licensing RePA_Sales_S Real Questions (page: 6)

What MAXIMUM length of time may a salesperson's real estate license be inactive before reactivation ceases to be possible without retaking and passing the licensing examination?

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 4 years
  4. 5 years

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

If a real estate license is inactive for more than 5 years, the licensee must retake and pass the licensing exam to reinstate their license.

49 Pa. Code § 35.251 (Relicensure Following Revocation or Inactive Status) states that a licensee who has been inactive for over 5 years must complete all initial licensing requirements again, including the exam.

A licensee can keep their license in inactive status indefinitely, but after 5 years, it requires reexamination.

Why the other answers are incorrect:

Option A (2 Years) & Option B (3 Years): Licensees may reactivate their license within this period without retaking the exam.

Option C (4 Years): The limit is 5 years, not 4.


Reference:

49 Pa. Code § 35.251 ­ Relicensure Following Revocation or Inactive Status



Which of the following activities performed by the manager of a multifamily dwelling REQUIRES a real estate license?

  1. Entering into leases
  2. Distributing building rules and regulations
  3. Showing apartments to prospective renters
  4. Providing information on rental amounts to prospective renters

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A real estate license is required to enter into leases on behalf of a landlord because this involves negotiating real estate transactions.

According to 49 Pa. Code § 35.201 (Definitions), property management activities that include leasing, collecting rent, and negotiating lease terms require a real estate license.

A property manager who is actively negotiating leases must hold a real estate license unless they are directly employed by the property owner.

Why the other answers are incorrect:

Option B (Distributing Rules): This does not require a license since it is administrative.

Option C (Showing Apartments): Showing apartments does not require a license as long as no negotiations occur.

Option D (Providing Rental Info): Providing information is not negotiating a lease, so a license is not needed.


Reference:

49 Pa. Code § 35.201 ­ Definitions



Which entities are authorized to investigate charges against real estate licensees concerning illegal discrimination in the sale or rental of housing?

  1. The Pennsylvania State Legislature and the Pennsylvania Real Estate Commission
  2. The Pennsylvania Real Estate Commission and the Better Business Bureau
  3. The Pennsylvania Human Relations Commission and the Pennsylvania State Legislature
  4. The Pennsylvania Real Estate Commission and the Pennsylvania Human Relations Commission

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Both the Pennsylvania Real Estate Commission (PREC) and the Pennsylvania Human Relations Commission (PHRC) have authority to investigate illegal discrimination in real estate transactions.

The Pennsylvania Human Relations Commission (PHRC) is responsible for enforcing the Pennsylvania Human Relations Act (PHRA), which prohibits discrimination in housing based on race, color, religion, ancestry, age, sex, national origin, disability, and familial status.

The Pennsylvania Real Estate Commission (PREC) investigates complaints against licensed real estate professionals who violate fair housing laws, including violations of the Real Estate Licensing and Registration Act (RELRA).

Why the other answers are incorrect:

Option A (Pennsylvania State Legislature and PREC): The Legislature makes laws but does not enforce them or conduct investigations.

Option B (PREC and Better Business Bureau): The Better Business Bureau (BBB) is a private organization and does not have legal enforcement authority.

Option C (PHRC and Legislature): The Legislature does not investigate complaints, but the PHRC does.


Reference:

Pennsylvania Human Relations Act (PHRA) - 43 P.S. § 951 (PHRC Enforcement)

Real Estate Licensing and Registration Act (RELRA) - 63 P.S. § 455.101 (PREC Enforcement)



An exclusive listing MUST be in writing and it MUST:

  1. contain a provision allowing the owner to cancel all exclusive features within 24 hours' notice
  2. contain provisions regarding acceptable financing arrangements
  3. be signed by the cooperating broker
  4. specify the duration of the listing

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

All exclusive listing agreements in Pennsylvania MUST specify their duration in writing.

49 Pa. Code § 35.332 (Exclusive Listing Agreements) states that all exclusive listings must have a definite start and end date.

Listings without an expiration date are considered illegal and unenforceable in Pennsylvania.

Why the other answers are incorrect:

Option A (Cancellation in 24 Hours): There is no legal requirement for a 24-hour cancellation clause.

Option B (Financing Arrangements): Financing provisions are not a required part of a listing agreement.

Option C (Signed by Cooperating Broker): A cooperating broker's signature is not required. Only the listing broker and seller need to sign the agreement.


Reference:

49 Pa. Code § 35.332 ­ Exclusive Listing Agreements



According to the Real Estate Commission, which of the following is REQUIRED to hold a real estate license in Pennsylvania?

  1. An attorney who holds himself out as a provider of brokerage services
  2. A home builder selling his brand new houses
  3. A bank selling its foreclosed properties
  4. An individual selling five unimproved lots that she owns

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In Pennsylvania, any person engaging in brokerage activities (such as negotiating sales or leases for compensation) must hold a real estate license unless specifically exempted.

49 Pa. Code § 35.201 (Definitions) & 63 P.S. § 455.304 (Exemptions) allow attorneys to practice real estate without a license ONLY IF the services are incidental to their legal practice.

If an attorney advertises as a real estate broker or regularly engages in real estate transactions beyond legal services, they must obtain a real estate license.

Why the other answers are incorrect:

Option B (Home Builder Selling New Houses): Builders are exempt when selling their own newly constructed homes.

Option C (Banks Selling Foreclosures): Banks are exempt under 63 P.S. § 455.304 (a)(5) since they are not in the business of selling real estate for profit.

Option D (Selling Five Unimproved Lots): Individuals selling their own property do not need a license, even for multiple lots.


Reference:

63 P.S. § 455.304 ­ Exemptions from Licensing



A salesperson owns a residence and wishes to sell it without listing it. Under Pennsylvania license law, the salesperson MUST:

  1. list the property with their firm
  2. disclose in all advertising that the owner of the property is a real estate licensee
  3. offer a sales commission or fee to cooperating brokers
  4. have an active license

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Under 49 Pa. Code § 35.285 (Disclosure of Real Estate Affiliations), a licensee selling their own property MUST disclose that they are a real estate licensee in all advertisements and communications.

The disclosure must be made in a clear and conspicuous manner to inform potential buyers that the seller has professional real estate expertise.

This rule prevents deception and ensures fair dealings in real estate transactions.

Why the other answers are incorrect:

Option A (List Property with Firm): Licensees are NOT required to list their own property with their firm.

Option C (Offer Commission to Brokers): There is no requirement to offer compensation to other brokers.

Option D (Have an Active License): A licensee can still sell their own property even if their license is inactive, but they must disclose their license status.


Reference:

49 Pa. Code § 35.285 ­ Disclosure of Real Estate Affiliations



When representing a seller, which of the following is a TRUE statement regarding the duties a licensee owes to the principal?

  1. A licensee's obligation of confidentiality ends at the conclusion of the listing contract.
  2. A licensee is not obligated to disclose the existence of another offer during negotiations on a purchase contract.
  3. A licensee is required to keep confidential the price the seller would accept if lower than the list price.
  4. A licensee is obligated to disclose to a consumer the minimum commission split between the licensee and the broker.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

A licensee has a fiduciary duty to keep the seller's pricing strategy confidential.

49 Pa. Code § 35.292 (Duties of Licensees Generally) states that a licensee must maintain confidentiality of information that could harm their client's negotiating position, including the minimum price the seller would accept.

Confidentiality extends beyond the duration of the listing agreement unless the seller gives explicit permission to disclose information.

Why the other answers are incorrect:

Option A (Confidentiality Ends After Listing): Confidentiality continues even after the contract ends.

Option B (Not Disclosing Another Offer): In multiple-offer situations, disclosure may be required based on seller instructions.

Option D (Commission Disclosure): The broker's commission arrangement is not required to be disclosed to the public.


Reference:

49 Pa. Code § 35.292 ­ Duties of Licensees Generally



According to the Pennsylvania Landlord-Tenant Act, a tenant must be notified of the final disposition of their security deposit within what time period following the end of the lease?

  1. Within 5 days
  2. Within 30 days
  3. Within 60 days
  4. Immediately upon completion of the landlord's final inspection of the premises

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Under The Pennsylvania Landlord and Tenant Act of 1951 (68 P.S. § 250.512), a landlord must return the tenant's security deposit or provide a written explanation of any deductions within 30 days of lease termination.

If the landlord withholds any portion of the deposit, they must provide an itemized list of damages and the amount deducted.

If the landlord fails to return the deposit or provide an itemized list within 30 days, they forfeit their right to keep any portion of the deposit and may be subject to legal penalties.

The tenant must provide a forwarding address to receive the deposit or notice.

Why the other answers are incorrect:

Option A (5 Days): There is no 5-day requirement in Pennsylvania law.

Option C (60 Days): The landlord is required to act within 30 days, not 60 days.

Option D (Immediately upon inspection): While an inspection may occur, the law grants the landlord up to 30 days to finalize deductions and return funds.


Reference:

The Pennsylvania Landlord and Tenant Act of 1951 (68 P.S. § 250.512)



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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