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Real Estate Licensing New Jersey Real Estate Salesperson New-Jersey-Real-Estate-Salesperson Dumps in PDF

Free Real Estate Licensing New-Jersey-Real-Estate-Salesperson Real Questions (page: 1)

New-Jersey-Real-Estate-Salesperson PDF — 120 Questions

A salesperson working with buyers secures an offer on a property. The offer calls for an initial deposit of $1,000 to be held in escrow. The salesperson instructs the buyer to issue a personal check in that amount payable to the salesperson. This action is

  1. prohibited, because the salesperson accepted a personal check.
  2. permissible, because the salesperson is acting as agent for the broker.
  3. prohibited, because checks for deposits to be held in escrow may only be payable to the broker's escrow account.
  4. permissible if the salesperson immediately writes a check for the deposit amount payable to their broker's escrow account.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

According to the New Jersey Real Estate Commission (NJREC) Rules and Regulations, a salesperson is not permitted to accept funds in their own name under any circumstances. All earnest money deposits, whether in cash or check form, must be made payable directly to the broker or the broker's trust (escrow) account, never to the salesperson.

The law is very clear that a salesperson works on behalf of and under the supervision of their broker. This means that the salesperson cannot hold or control escrow funds personally. The proper handling of escrow deposits is a strict trust account requirement under N.J.A.C. 11:5-5.1.

Key points from the New Jersey Salesperson study guide:

Salespersons cannot maintain escrow accounts.

All deposit checks must be made payable to the broker's escrow or trust account.

Accepting a check payable to the salesperson, even with the intent to transfer it, is a violation of NJREC trust account rules.

Therefore, the correct answer is C, because any deposit intended for escrow may only be payable to the broker's escrow account.


Reference:

New Jersey Real Estate Commission, Rules and Regulations, N.J.A.C. 11:5-5.1 (Escrow and Trust Accounts); New Jersey Real Estate Salesperson Pre-Licensure Course Study Guide, Chapter on Trust Accounts and Escrow Handling.



A licensee must provide disclosure of licensed status when acting as a principal if

  1. the agent of the other party asks about this specifically.
  2. the licensee does not have errors and omission insurance.
  3. the licensee has any economic interest in the property.
  4. any relative of the licensee has ever lived in the residence.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Under N.J.A.C. 11:5-6.4, any licensed New Jersey real estate broker, salesperson, or broker- salesperson must disclose in writing their licensed status when they have a direct or indirect ownership interest in property being sold, purchased, or leased. This is known as disclosure of economic interest.

The purpose of this regulation is to ensure the public is fully aware that they are dealing with a licensed real estate professional, who may have specialized knowledge or influence in the transaction. Disclosure must appear in the contract of sale, lease, or any offer made.

Therefore, the correct answer is C, since a licensee must disclose whenever they have an economic interest in the property.


Reference:

NJREC Rules and Regulations, N.J.A.C. 11:5-6.4; New Jersey Real Estate Salesperson Pre- Licensure Course Guide, Chapter on Ethical and Legal Responsibilities.



A contract of sale prepared by a licensee MUST include an attorney review clause if it pertains to which of the following types of properties?

  1. Six-family dwelling unit, a portion of which is used for non-residential purposes
  2. Commercial building that does not exceed 10,000 square feet
  3. Subdivision of fifteen or more lots
  4. Single family residential vacant lot

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

According to the New Jersey Supreme Court Mandated Attorney Review Clause (as adopted by NJREC, N.J.A.C. 11:5-6.2(g)), all contracts prepared by licensees for the sale of one-to-four family residential properties and residential vacant lots must contain the three-day attorney review clause.

The purpose is to protect consumers in residential transactions by giving them the right to have their attorney review and potentially cancel or modify the contract within three business days.

Therefore, the correct answer is D, because the attorney review clause is mandatory for contracts involving a single-family residential vacant lot.


Reference:

NJREC Rules and Regulations, N.J.A.C. 11:5-6.2(g); NJ Attorney Review Clause Requirement, New Jersey Real Estate Salesperson Pre-Licensure Course Guide.



A salesperson is selling a leased commercial property.
What will happen to the lease after the sale is consummated?

  1. The lease is assigned to the new owner.
  2. The lease expires and the tenant must move.
  3. The tenant and the new owner must negotiate a new lease.
  4. The new owner has the option of canceling the lease or accepting the lease.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In New Jersey, under landlord-tenant law, a lease is considered a contract that runs with the land.
When a property is sold while a lease is in effect, the new owner automatically assumes the rights and responsibilities of the landlord under the existing lease.

The tenant does not need to renegotiate and cannot be forced to vacate until the lease term expires, unless both parties agree otherwise. This transfer is known as an assignment of lease to the new owner.

Therefore, the correct answer is A.


Reference:

NJ Real Estate Salesperson Pre-Licensure Course Guide, Chapter on Leases; NJ Landlord- Tenant Law principles.



A broker who charges or collects an advance fee in excess of $25 for services to be rendered MUST:

  1. deduct the amount collected from the commission or settlement
  2. give the principal receipts for all expenditures
  3. furnish within ninety days of its collection an accounting of how the money was used
  4. retain the difference between the amount of money collected and the amount spent

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

According to N.J.A.C. 11:5-6.1(j), any broker who collects an advance fee greater than $25 for services to be rendered must provide the client with a written accounting within 90 days of the collection date. This accounting must detail how the money was used and what services were performed.

This rule prevents abuse of advance fees and ensures transparency between brokers and clients. Brokers cannot simply keep advance fees without providing an itemized report.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.


Reference:

NJREC Rules and Regulations, N.J.A.C. 11:5-6.1(j); NJ Real Estate Salesperson Pre- Licensure Course Guide, Chapter on Brokerage Business Practices.



A public utility company is installing power lines across several counties. Will the utility company be more likely to be granted an easement appurtenant or an easement in gross?

  1. easement appurtenant because it cannot run with the land
  2. easement appurtenant because it cannot be extinguished by merger of the dominant and servient tenements
  3. easement in gross because it does not require ownership of real property adjacent to the property that is subject to the easement
  4. easement in gross because it allows the holder of the easement to eventually gain title to the encumbered property

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

An easement in gross benefits a person or entity, rather than another parcel of land. Unlike an easement appurtenant, which requires a dominant and servient estate (two adjoining parcels), an easement in gross does not require ownership of adjacent property.

Utility companies (electric, gas, water, sewer, cable) typically hold easements in gross, allowing them to install and maintain lines across multiple properties. The easement is granted to the utility company, not to a neighboring landowner.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.


Reference:

NJ Real Estate Salesperson Pre-Licensure Course Guide, Chapter on Interests in Real
Estate (Easements); NJ Property Law principles on easements.



Which of the following is a radioactive odorless gas which may require mitigation?

  1. radon
  2. asbestos
  3. formaldehyde
  4. carbon monoxide

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Radon is a naturally occurring, colorless, tasteless, and odorless radioactive gas formed from the natural breakdown of uranium in soil and rock. It can accumulate in basements and lower levels of homes.

The New Jersey Department of Environmental Protection (NJDEP) identifies radon as a serious environmental hazard. Testing and mitigation systems (such as sub-slab ventilation) are required in certain areas of New Jersey where radon levels are high.

Asbestos is a fibrous mineral linked to lung disease but is not radioactive.

Formaldehyde is a chemical used in building materials but is not radioactive.

Carbon monoxide is a deadly, odorless gas from combustion, but again not radioactive.

Therefore, the correct answer is A (radon).


Reference:

NJ Real Estate Salesperson Pre-Licensure Course Guide, Chapter on Environmental Issues;

NJDEP Radon Awareness Statutes.



If a salesperson or broker-salesperson maintains a webpage that is not linked to the webpage of their broker, the licensee's webpage must display the name of the broker as well as the

  1. broker's email address.
  2. broker's telephone number.
  3. address of the broker's main office.
  4. address of the branch office from which the licensee operates.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Under NJREC advertising rules (N.J.A.C. 11:5-6.1), any licensee maintaining an independent website (not directly linked to the broker's official site) must clearly and prominently display:

The name of their employing broker, and

The main office address of the broker.

This ensures the public understands the licensee works under a supervising broker, and prevents misleading advertising. It is not sufficient to only list a branch office or email.

Therefore, the correct answer is C.


Reference:

NJREC Rules and Regulations, N.J.A.C. 11:5-6.1 (Advertising Requirements).



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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