PECB Certified ISO 9001 Lead Auditor ISO 9001 Lead Auditor Dumps in PDF

Free PECB ISO 9001 Lead Auditor Real Questions (page: 4)

You work for organisation

  1. You are asked to lead an internal audit of A's quality management system. It has a head office in Plant A1 and a second Plant A2 nearby. Due to the COVID-19 pandemic, production in A2 was discontinued and it was rented to a logistics organisation B, not related to There are no A employees working in A2. Organisation A expects to reassume production in A2 as soon as possible.
    Which of the following actions would you consider appropriate when planning the internal audit of A's quality management system?
  2. Visit Plant A2 to interview personnel of company B
  3. Visit Plant A2 to interview B's quality manager
  4. Visit Plant A2 to interview A's security personnel and B's maintenance department
  5. Interview the A2 plant manager, now working in Plant A1

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In this scenario, the organisation A has two plants, A1 and A2, but the production in A2 was discontinued due to the COVID-19 pandemic and the plant was rented to another organisation B. There are no A employees working in A2, and the organisation A expects to reassume production in A2 as soon as possible. Therefore, the appropriate action to plan the internal audit of A's quality management system is:
·Interview the A2 plant manager, now working in Plant A1: This action involves interviewing the person who is responsible for the management and operation of the plant A2, and who is currently working in the plant A1. The interview should aim to gather information about the status and condition of the plant A2, the impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on the quality management system,

the arrangements and agreements with the organisation B, and the plans and actions to resume production in the plant A25 . This action is relevant and necessary for the internal audit, as it can help to assess the readiness and effectiveness of the quality management system, and to identify any gaps or nonconformities that need to be addressed.
The other options are not appropriate actions to plan the internal audit of A's quality management system, according to the web search results from my internal tool. They are:
·Visit Plant A2 to interview personnel of company B: This action involves visiting the plant A2 and interviewing the personnel of the organisation B, who are not related to the organisation A and who are not part of the quality management system. This action is irrelevant and unnecessary for the internal audit, as it can not provide any evidence or information about the conformity and improvement of the quality management system of the organisation A5 . ·Visit Plant A2 to interview B's quality manager: This action involves visiting the plant A2 and interviewing the quality manager of the organisation B, who is not related to the organisation A and who is not part of the quality management system. This action is irrelevant and unnecessary for the internal audit, as it can not provide any evidence or information about the conformity and improvement of the quality management system of the organisation A5 . ·Visit Plant A2 to interview A's security personnel and B's maintenance department: This action involves visiting the plant A2 and interviewing the security personnel of the organisation A and the maintenance department of the organisation B, who are not directly involved in the quality management system. This action is irrelevant and unnecessary for the internal audit, as it can not provide any evidence or information about the conformity and improvement of the quality management system of the organisation A5 .
Therefore, the correct answer is D.


Reference:

1: Quality audit - Wikipedia 2: A step-by-step guide to internal quality audits 3: ISO 9001:2015 - Quality management systems -- Requirements 4: ISO 19011:2018 - Guidelines for auditing management systems 5: Audit Process | Flowchart | Summary - Accountinguide : What are the Stages of the Auditing Process & Why it is Important ...



You have been nominated audit team leader of a third-party audit.
Which of the following could be the two most relevant objectives of this audit?

  1. Evaluate the satisfaction interested parties
  2. Evaluate the effectiveness of the management system
  3. Identify the need of resources
  4. Evaluate the capability of the management system to establish and achieve objectives
  5. Identify opportunities for improvement
  6. Evaluate the benefits obtained since the implementation of the management system

Answer(s): B,D

Explanation:

Evaluate the effectiveness of the management system: This objective involves verifying that the quality management system meets the requirements of a specific standard, such as ISO 9001:2015,

and that it achieves the intended results and outcomes. The audit team will collect and analyse audit evidence to determine the degree of conformity and performance of the quality management system23.
·Evaluate the capability of the management system to establish and achieve objectives: This objective involves verifying that the quality management system supports the strategic direction and policies of the organization, and that it addresses the needs and expectations of the interested parties. The audit team will assess the suitability, adequacy, and alignment of the quality management system objectives, and the effectiveness of the planning and implementation processes to achieve them23.
The other options are not the most relevant objectives of a third-party audit, according to the web search results from my internal tool. They may be related to other aspects or types of audits, but they are not the focus of a third-party audit.

Therefore, the correct answer is B and D.


Reference:

1: Safeguarding Your Business: The Power of Third-Party Security Audits 2: ISO 19011:2018 - Guidelines for auditing management systems 3: Third Party Audit ­ QMSGurus.com



Who would be defined as a witness during a witness audit?

Choose two of the following options:

  1. Someone with a qualification from the certification body
  2. An auditor
  3. An existing member of the audit team
  4. An assessor for the accreditation body

Answer(s): B,D

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed = According to the web search results from my internal tool, a witness audit is a technique used during an accreditation audit, where the accreditation body observes the performance and competence of the certification body auditors in conducting an audit12. A witness audit can also be used by a certification body to monitor and evaluate its own auditors3. During a witness audit, the following roles can be defined:
·An auditor: This is the person who is being witnessed by the accreditation body or the certification body. The auditor is responsible for conducting the audit according to the audit plan, criteria, and standards, and for providing audit evidence and findings123. ·An assessor for the accreditation body: This is the person who witnesses the auditor on behalf of the accreditation body. The assessor is responsible for evaluating the auditor's performance and competence, and for providing feedback and recommendations to the accreditation body123. The other options are not defined as witnesses during a witness audit, according to the web search results from my internal tool. They are:
·Someone with a qualification from the certification body: This is not a specific role in a witness audit, as anyone who is involved in the audit process should have a qualification from the certification body. Moreover, having a qualification does not necessarily mean that the person is a witness or an auditor4.
·An existing member of the audit team: This is not a specific role in a witness audit, as the audit team consists of the auditors who are conducting the audit, not the ones who are witnessing it. The witness audit is a separate activity from the audit itself, and the witness should not interfere with the audit process or influence the audit outcome123.
Therefore, the correct answer is B and D.


Reference:

1: DQS Inc. | Witness Audits | Auditor Training 2: Have you ever been involved with a witness audit? - IFSQN 3: Certac - Witness Audit of Certification Bodies 4: ISO 19011:2018 - Guidelines for auditing management systems



DRAG DROP
You are carrying out an audit at a single-site organisation seeking certification to ISO 9001 for the first time. The organization manufactures cosmetics for major retailers.
You are interviewing the Manufacturing Manager (MM).

You: "I would like to begin by looking at the cleaning controls."

MM: "We record the cleaning of the equipment at the end of every batch. This document details the minimum cleaning frequency and the procedures to follow for all areas and each item of equipment. The person who carries out the cleaning puts their initial on the document and records the time and date alongside."

Narrative: You sample production records over 3-days and note down evidence of nonconformity as per the table below.



  1. See Explanation for the Answer.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Nonconformity report
ISO 9001 Clause Number: 8.5.4 Nature of problem: Cleaning and sanitising records are not available for every batch. ISO 9001 requirement that has not been fulfilled: ISO 9001 - "The organization shall implement planned arrangements, at appropriate stages, to verify that the product requirements have been met." Evidence: 40 cleaning records are available for 63 batches.



DRAG DROP
You are carrying out an audit at a single-site organisation seeking certification to ISO 9001 for the first time. The organization manufactures cosmetics for major retailers and the name of the retailer supplied appears on the product packaging. Sales turnover has increased significantly over the past five years.

You are interviewing the new Product Development Manager. You note that a software application called SWIFT is used to help control the product development process.

You have gathered audit evidence as outlined in the table. Match the ISO 9001 clause 8.3 extracts to the audit evidence.

  1. See Explanation for the Answer.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:



Share your comments for PECB ISO 9001 Lead Auditor exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

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