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Palo Alto Networks Systems Engineer Professional - Hardware Firewall PSE-Strata-Pro-24 Dumps in PDF

Free Palo Alto Networks PSE-Strata-Pro-24 Real Questions (page: 6)

PSE-Strata-Pro-24 PDF — 60 Questions

A company has multiple business units, each of which manages its own user directories and identity providers (IdPs) with different domain names. The company's network security team wants to deploy a shared GlobalProtect remote access service for all business units to authenticate users to each business unit's IdP.

Which configuration will enable the network security team to authenticate GlobalProtect users to multiple SAML IdPs?

  1. GlobalProtect with multiple authentication profiles for each SAML IdP
  2. Multiple authentication mode Cloud Identity Engine authentication profile for use on the GlobalProtect portals and gateways
  3. Authentication sequence that has multiple authentication profiles using different authentication methods
  4. Multiple Cloud Identity Engine tenants for each business unit

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

To configure GlobalProtect to authenticate users from multiple SAML identity providers (IdPs), the correct approach involves creating multiple authentication profiles, one for each IdP. Here's the analysis of each option:

Option A: GlobalProtect with multiple authentication profiles for each SAML IdP

GlobalProtect allows configuring multiple SAML authentication profiles, each corresponding to a specific IdP.

These profiles are associated with the GlobalProtect portal or gateway.
When users attempt to authenticate, they can be directed to the appropriate IdP based on their domain or other attributes.

This is the correct approach to enable authentication for users from multiple IdPs.

Option B: Multiple authentication mode Cloud Identity Engine authentication profile for use on the GlobalProtect portals and gateways

The Cloud Identity Engine (CIE) can synchronize identities from multiple directories, but it does not directly support multiple SAML IdPs for a shared GlobalProtect setup.

This option is not applicable.

Option C: Authentication sequence that has multiple authentication profiles using different authentication methods

Authentication sequences allow multiple authentication methods (e.g., LDAP, RADIUS, SAML) to be tried in sequence for the same user, but they are not designed for handling multiple SAML IdPs.

This option is not appropriate for the scenario.

Option D: Multiple Cloud Identity Engine tenants for each business unit

Deploying multiple CIE tenants for each business unit adds unnecessary complexity and is not required for configuring GlobalProtect to authenticate users to multiple SAML IdPs.

This option is not appropriate.



Device-ID can be used in which three policies? (Choose three.)

  1. Security
  2. Decryption
  3. Policy-based forwarding (PBF)
  4. SD-WAN
  5. Quality of Service (QoS)

Answer(s): A,C,E

Explanation:

Device-ID is a feature in Palo Alto Networks firewalls that identifies devices based on their unique attributes (e.g., MAC addresses, device type, operating system). Device-ID can be used in several policy types to provide granular control. Here's how it applies to each option:

Option A: Security

Device-ID can be used in Security policies to enforce rules based on the device type or identity. For example, you can create policies that allow or block traffic for specific device types (e.g., IoT devices).

This is correct.

Option B: Decryption

Device-ID cannot be used in decryption policies. Decryption policies are based on traffic types, certificates, and other SSL/TLS attributes, not device attributes.

This is incorrect.

Option C: Policy-based forwarding (PBF)

Device-ID can be used in PBF policies to control the forwarding of traffic based on the identified device. For example, you can route traffic from certain device types through specific ISPs or VPN tunnels.

This is correct.

Option D: SD-WAN

SD-WAN policies use metrics such as path quality (e.g., latency, jitter) and application information for traffic steering. Device-ID is not a criterion used in SD-WAN policies.

This is incorrect.

Option E: Quality of Service (QoS)

Device-ID can be used in QoS policies to apply traffic shaping or bandwidth control for specific devices. For example, you can prioritize or limit bandwidth for traffic originating from IoT devices or specific endpoints.

This is correct.


Reference:

Palo Alto Networks documentation on Device-ID



The PAN-OS User-ID integrated agent is included with PAN-OS software and comes in which two forms? (Choose two.)

  1. Integrated agent
  2. GlobalProtect agent
  3. Windows-based agent
  4. Cloud Identity Engine (CIE)

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

User-ID is a feature in PAN-OS that maps IP addresses to usernames by integrating with various directory services (e.g., Active Directory). User-ID can be implemented through agents provided by Palo Alto Networks. Here's how each option applies:

Option A: Integrated agent

The integrated User-ID agent is built into PAN-OS and does not require an external agent installation. It is configured directly on the firewall and integrates with directory services to retrieve user information.

This is correct.

Option B: GlobalProtect agent

GlobalProtect is Palo Alto Networks' VPN solution and does not function as a User-ID agent.
While it can be used to authenticate users and provide visibility, it is not categorized as a User-ID agent.

This is incorrect.

Option C: Windows-based agent

The Windows-based User-ID agent is a standalone agent installed on a Windows server. It collects user mapping information from directory services and sends it to the firewall.

This is correct.

Option D: Cloud Identity Engine (CIE)

The Cloud Identity Engine provides identity services in a cloud-native manner but is not a User-ID agent. It synchronizes with identity providers like Azure AD and Okta.

This is incorrect.


Reference:

Palo Alto Networks documentation on User-ID

Knowledge Base article on User-ID Agent Options



Which two actions can a systems engineer take to discover how Palo Alto Networks can bring value to a customer's business when they show interest in adopting Zero Trust? (Choose two.)

  1. Ask the customer about their internal business flows, such as how their users interact with applications and data across the infrastructure.
  2. Explain how Palo Alto Networks can place virtual NGFWs across the customer's network to ensure assets and traffic are seen and controlled.
  3. Use the Zero Trust Roadshow package to demonstrate to the customer how robust Palo Alto Networks capabilities are in meeting Zero Trust.
  4. Ask the customer about their approach to Zero Trust, explaining that it is a strategy more than it is something they purchase.

Answer(s): A,D

Explanation:

To help a customer understand how Palo Alto Networks can bring value when adopting a Zero Trust architecture, the systems engineer must focus on understanding the customer's specific needs and explaining how the Zero Trust strategy aligns with their business goals. Here's the detailed analysis of each option:

Option A: Ask the customer about their internal business flows, such as how their users interact with applications and data across the infrastructure

Understanding the customer's internal workflows and how their users interact with applications and data is a critical first step in Zero Trust. This information allows the systems engineer to identify potential security gaps and suggest tailored solutions.

This is correct.

Option B: Explain how Palo Alto Networks can place virtual NGFWs across the customer's network to ensure assets and traffic are seen and controlled

While placing NGFWs across the customer's network may be part of the implementation, this approach focuses on the product rather than the customer's strategy. Zero Trust is more about policies and architecture than specific product placement.

This is incorrect.

Option C: Use the Zero Trust Roadshow package to demonstrate to the customer how robust Palo Alto Networks capabilities are in meeting Zero Trust

While demonstrating capabilities is valuable during the later stages of engagement, the initial focus should be on understanding the customer's business requirements rather than showcasing products.

This is incorrect.

Option D: Ask the customer about their approach to Zero Trust, explaining that it is a strategy more than it is something they purchase

Zero Trust is not a product but a strategy that requires a shift in mindset. By discussing their approach, the systems engineer can identify whether the customer understands Zero Trust principles and guide them accordingly.

This is correct.


Reference:

Palo Alto Networks documentation on Zero Trust

Zero Trust Architecture Principles in NIST 800-207



A large global company plans to acquire 500 NGFWs to replace its legacy firewalls and has a specific requirement for centralized logging and reporting capabilities.

What should a systems engineer recommend?

  1. Combine Panorama for firewall management with Palo Alto Networks' cloud-based Strata Logging Service to offer scalability for the company's logging and reporting infrastructure.
  2. Use Panorama for firewall management and to transfer logs from the 500 firewalls directly to a third-party SIEM for centralized logging and reporting.
  3. Highlight the efficiency of PAN-OS, which employs AI to automatically extract critical logs and generate daily executive reports, and confirm that the purchase of 500 NGFWs is sufficient.
  4. Deploy a pair of M-1000 log collectors in the customer data center, and route logs from all 500 firewalls to the log collectors for centralized logging and reporting.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A large deployment of 500 firewalls requires a scalable, centralized logging and reporting infrastructure. Here's the analysis of each option:

Option A: Combine Panorama for firewall management with Palo Alto Networks' cloud-based Strata Logging Service to offer scalability for the company's logging and reporting infrastructure

The Strata Logging Service (or Cortex Data Lake) is a cloud-based solution that offers massive scalability for logging and reporting. Combined with Panorama, it allows for centralized log collection, analysis, and policy management without the need for extensive on-premises infrastructure.

This approach is ideal for large-scale environments like the one described in the scenario, as it ensures cost-effectiveness and scalability.

This is the correct recommendation.

Option B: Use Panorama for firewall management and to transfer logs from the 500 firewalls directly to a third-party SIEM for centralized logging and reporting

While third-party SIEM solutions can be integrated with Palo Alto Networks NGFWs, directly transferring logs from 500 firewalls to a SIEM can lead to bottlenecks and scalability issues. Furthermore, relying on third-party solutions may not provide the same level of native integration as the Strata Logging Service.

This is not the ideal recommendation.

Option C: Highlight the efficiency of PAN-OS, which employs AI to automatically extract critical logs and generate daily executive reports, and confirm that the purchase of 500 NGFWs is sufficient

While PAN-OS provides AI-driven insights and reporting, this option does not address the requirement for centralized logging and reporting. It also dismisses the need for additional infrastructure to handle logs from 500 firewalls.

This is incorrect.

Option D: Deploy a pair of M-1000 log collectors in the customer data center, and route logs from all 500 firewalls to the log collectors for centralized logging and reporting

The M-1000 appliance is an on-premises log collector, but it has limitations in terms of scalability and storage capacity when compared to cloud-based options like the Strata Logging Service. Deploying only two M-1000 log collectors for 500 firewalls would result in potential performance and storage challenges.

This is not the best recommendation.


Reference:

Palo Alto Networks documentation on Panorama

Strata Logging Service (Cortex Data Lake) overview in Palo Alto Networks Docs



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:49:11 AM

Question 3:
Question 3 asks for two valid ways to meet the purchase order creation validation (warn if the vendor is on the exclusion list for the customer/product and block/alert accordingly).
Correct answers: C and D

  • C: In Application Explorer, create a form extension and implement validation.
- Extend the Purchase Order creation form and add validation logic (e.g., before save/submit) to check VendExclusions for the customer/item and show a warning or block the PO as needed.
  • D: Implement Chain of Command (CoC) and method wrapping by creating a form extension class.
- Use CoC to wrap the target PO creation method, perform the exclusion check after calling super(), and enforce the rule (warning or prevent creation).
Why not A or B?
  • A (class with a form data source event handler) is not the standard pattern for this UI-level validation scenario and is less direct for enforcing creation-time behavior.
  • B (table extension with validation) cannot sufficiently enforce the UI-level workflow or trigger user-facing warnings during PO creation.

So, the two valid techniques are C and D, reflecting the recommended form-extension patterns: direct form validation and CoC-based method wrapping.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

Oslo, Norway
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

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