Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner Cybersecurity-Practitioner Dumps in PDF

Free Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity-Practitioner Real Questions (page: 12)

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

  1. They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.
  2. They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.
  3. They are a defense against spam attacks.
  4. They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

Answer(s): B,D

Explanation:

SaaS financial botnets are often sold as kits, enabling attackers to license and reuse the malicious code easily.

These kits allow attackers to build and operate their own botnets, often targeting financial data or systems.

Financial botnets are typically smaller but more targeted than spamming or DDoS botnets. Botnets are not a defense mechanism, but rather a threat.



What is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure?

  1. API
  2. Serverless function
  3. Hypervisor
  4. Docker container

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

A serverless function is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure, typically as part of a Function as a Service (FaaS) model. It is executed in response to events such as HTTP requests or database changes, and the cloud provider handles the underlying infrastructure.



Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

  1. Advanced malware
  2. Smishing
  3. Reconnaissance
  4. Denial of service

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Advanced malware is designed to evade detection and persist within a system, often using stealthy techniques to spread laterally across multiple hosts in a network without triggering alerts, making it especially dangerous and difficult to remove.



What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?

  1. Frequent database updates
  2. Support of a DLP device
  3. API integration with a sandbox
  4. Enabling quality of service

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Signature-based malware detection relies on a constantly updated database of known threat signatures to identify malicious files or activity. Without frequent updates, it becomes ineffective against newly emerging threats.



When does a TLS handshake occur?

  1. Before establishing a TCP connection
  2. Only during DNS over HTTPS queries
  3. After a TCP handshake has been established
  4. Independently of HTTPS communications

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

A TLS handshake occurs after the TCP handshake is complete. The TLS handshake is responsible for establishing a secure, encrypted session between client and server, including the negotiation of encryption algorithms and exchange of keys.



Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?

  1. Data decompression
  2. Registered certificates
  3. Morphing code
  4. Low traffic volumes

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Morphing code, also known as polymorphism, allows advanced malware to change its code structure with each iteration or infection. This makes it extremely difficult for traditional signature-based detection tools to recognize and block the malware consistently.



Which type of attack includes exfiltration of data as a primary objective?

  1. Advanced persistent threat
  2. Denial-of-service (DoS)
  3. Watering hole attack
  4. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

An Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) is a long-term, targeted cyberattack where data exfiltration is often the primary objective. Attackers maintain a covert presence in the network to steal sensitive information over time.



What is an operation of an Attack Surface Management (ASM) platform?

  1. It scans assets in the cloud space for remediation of compromised sanctioned SaaS applications.
  2. It continuously identifies all internal and external internet-connected assets for potential attack vectors and exposures.
  3. It identifies and monitors the movement of data within, into, and out of an organization's network.
  4. It detects and remediates misconfigured security settings in sanctioned SaaS applications through monitoring.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Attack Surface Management (ASM) platforms focus on continuous discovery and monitoring of all internet-facing assets, both internal and external, to identify attack vectors, vulnerabilities, and exposures that could be exploited by threat actors.



Share your comments for Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity-Practitioner exam with other users:

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

V
vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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A
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6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

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Alex
5/24/2025 12:54:15 AM

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3/17/2025 11:08:37 AM

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11/28/2024 7:17:38 AM

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