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Nutanix Certified Professional - Multicloud Infrastructure v6.10 NCP-MCI v6.10 Dumps in PDF

Free Nutanix NCP-MCI v6.10 Real Questions (page: 7)

NCP-MCI v6.10 PDF — 121 Questions

A company is evaluating Nutanix Disaster Recovery (DR) to protect multiple business-critical applications. Some applications are built using a 3-tier architecture and have interdependencies. After failover, the VM's static IP address is retained, but DNS configuration is lost. How should an administrator proceed to resolve this issue?

  1. Configure Self-Service Restore.
  2. Create custom in-guest scripts to preserve the statically assigned DNS IP addresses.
  3. Install Network Manager command-line tool (nncli) in the protected Windows VMs.
  4. Configure a Protection Domain.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

During failover in Nutanix Disaster Recovery, VMs retain their static IPs but may lose DNS settings if the network configuration at the DR site is different from the primary site.
Option B (Create custom in-guest scripts) is correct:
Custom scripts allow Windows or Linux VMs to restore DNS settings automatically after failover. These scripts can be executed using post-failover automation in Nutanix DR policies.
Option A (Self-Service Restore) is incorrect:
Self-Service Restore is used for end-user recovery of deleted files, not for network settings.
Option C (nncli tool) is incorrect:
The nncli tool is used for network troubleshooting, but it does not automatically restore DNS

settings.
Option D (Configure a Protection Domain) is incorrect:
Protection Domains define replication policies, but they do not fix DNS settings after failover.


Reference:

Nutanix Disaster Recovery Guide Failover Automation and Network Configuration Nutanix Bible VM Recovery and IP Management in DR Scenarios Nutanix KB Preserving DNS Settings in Disaster Recovery



An administrator needs to create a storage container named TestData with the following conditions:

Replication Factor (RF) = 1 (RF1)
Inline Compression enabled
Deduplication disabled
Maximum storage capacity = 100 GiB
How should the administrator complete this task?

  1. Log into Prism Element and create the storage container with an Advertised Capacity of 100 GiB.
  2. Log into Prism Element and create the storage container.
  3. Log into Prism Central and create the storage container with a Reserved Capacity of 100 GiB.
  4. Log into Prism Central and create the storage container.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

When creating a storage container in Nutanix, the administrator must configure the correct capacity settings:
Option A (Prism Element with Advertised Capacity of 100 GiB) is correct:
Advertised Capacity defines logical limits for the container (i.e., how much space it reports as available).
Inline Compression can be enabled directly in Prism Element. Option B (Create in Prism Element without Advertised Capacity) is incorrect:
Without specifying Advertised Capacity, the container may consume unlimited storage. Option C (Create in Prism Central with Reserved Capacity) is incorrect:
Reserved Capacity applies to Quality of Service (QoS) policies, not storage limits. Option D (Create in Prism Central without capacity limits) is incorrect:
Prism Central can manage storage but does not directly enforce RF1 and compression policies.


Reference:

Nutanix Storage Management Guide Creating and Managing Storage Containers Nutanix Bible Replication Factor (RF) and Data Optimization Nutanix KB Inline Compression Best Practices in Nutanix AOS



Which predefined view in Prism Central's Intelligent Operations should be used to determine which

VM is consuming excessive resources and causing performance issues for others?

  1. Inactive VMs List
  2. Overprovisioned VMs List
  3. Bully VMs List
  4. Constrained VMs List

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The Bully VMs List (Option C) in Prism Central's Intelligent Operations identifies VMs consuming excessive CPU, memory, or storage, which negatively affects other VMs. Option A (Inactive VMs List) is used for identifying unused VMs but does not detect performance issues.
Option B (Overprovisioned VMs List) helps identify VMs with excessive allocated resources, but it does not focus on live performance impact.
Option D (Constrained VMs List) highlights VMs suffering from resource contention, not those causing it.


Reference:

Nutanix Prism Central Intelligent Operations and Performance Tuning Nutanix KB Identifying and Managing Resource-Hogging VMs



Which feature deploys a temporary VM that allows an administrator to log in and apply OS patches to a VM template?

  1. Create VM from Template
  2. Complete Guest OS Update
  3. Update Configuration
  4. Update Guest OS

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The Update Guest OS feature (Option D) in Nutanix allows administrators to apply patches and updates to a VM template by creating a temporary VM instance for modification.
How It Works:
A temporary VM is deployed from the template.
Administrators apply updates to the OS.
Once complete, the changes are saved back to the template.
Option A (Create VM from Template) is incorrect:
This feature creates a new VM from an existing template but does not update the template itself.
Option B (Complete Guest OS Update) is incorrect:
There is no specific Nutanix feature named "Complete Guest OS Update."

Option C (Update Configuration) is incorrect:
Updates VM hardware and policies but not the OS.


Reference:

Nutanix Prism Central Managing VM Templates and Guest OS Updates Nutanix Bible OS Management and Updates in Nutanix Environments Nutanix KB How to Patch OS in a Nutanix VM Template



A user created a report in the Intelligent Operations Analysis Dashboard but forgot to download it.

However, after logging back into Prism Central, the administrator finds that the report is no longer available.
What is the most likely cause?

  1. A user with Cluster Viewer role deleted the report.
  2. The user-generated report was archived.
  3. Reports are automatically deleted after 24 hours.
  4. The report is stored in the cluster's Prism Element.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

In Nutanix Prism Central, user-generated reports in Intelligent Operations are stored for a limited time and then deleted automatically.
Option C (Reports are automatically deleted after 24 hours) is correct:
Reports do not persist indefinitely unless they are scheduled reports.
One-time reports expire after 24 hours.
Option A (Cluster Viewer deleted the report) is incorrect:
Cluster Viewer does not have permissions to delete reports.
Option B (Report was archived) is incorrect:
Nutanix does not automatically archive reports.
Option D (Report stored in Prism Element) is incorrect:
Reports are generated and stored only in Prism Central, not Prism Element.


Reference:

Nutanix Prism Central Guide Intelligent Operations & Report Retention Policies Nutanix KB Why Reports in Prism Central Are Not Persisting



An administrator is trying to configure Metro Availability between Nutanix ESXi-based clusters. However, the Compatible Remote Sites screen does not list all required storage containers.





Which two reasons could be a cause for this issue? (Choose two.)

  1. Source and destination hardware are from different vendors.
  2. The remote site storage container has compression enabled.
  3. The destination storage container is not empty.
  4. Both storage containers must have the same name.

Answer(s): C,D

Explanation:

Metro Availability in Nutanix requires that the primary and secondary storage containers be configured identically to ensure data replication consistency. Option C (The destination storage container is not empty) is correct:
The remote storage container must be empty before Metro Availability can be enabled. Existing data can cause conflicts and prevent it from appearing in the "Compatible Remote Sites" list. Option D (Both storage containers must have the same name) is correct:
Metro Availability requires that storage containers have identical names across clusters. If names do not match, the storage container will not be listed as compatible. Option A is incorrect: Metro Availability works regardless of hardware vendor differences. Option B is incorrect: Compression does not affect compatibility but may impact performance.


Reference:

Nutanix Metro Availability Deployment Guide
Nutanix Best Practices for Configuring Remote Sites for Metro Availability Nutanix KB Troubleshooting Storage Container Issues in Metro Availability



Refer to Exhibit:



An administrator is looking at the memory cluster runway diagram as shown in exhibit, in Prism Central. The environment has three hosts with the following configuration:
CPU: 2x Intel Xeon Gold (8 cores, 2.6 GHz)
RAM: 256 GB per host
Storage: SSDs and HDDs
The Intelligent Operations feature has been active for one month, but no further configurations were applied.
What does the dotted red line mean?

  1. It is the default trend analysis static threshold that can be manually set.
  2. It is the maximum memory the administrator can assign to VMs.
  3. It is the calculated memory oversubscription limit for currently running VMs.
  4. It is the usable capacity based on cluster configuration options.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The dotted red line represents the calculated memory oversubscription limit for currently running VMs.
A) It is the default trend analysis static threshold that can be manually set. This is incorrect; dotted red line reflects oversubscription, not a user-set threshold.
B) It is the maximum memory the administrator can assign to VMs. This is incorrect; oversubscription limit is a dynamic capacity metric, not a hard cap.
C) It is the calculated memory oversubscription limit for currently running VMs. Correct; shows the current allowable memory demand beyond physical RAM based on clustering and VM activity.
D) It is the usable capacity based on cluster configuration options. This is incorrect; usable capacity is not represented by the oversubscription line.



An administrator receives complaints about VM performance. After reviewing the VM's CPU Ready Time data, which step should the administrator take to diagnose the issue further?

  1. Check the number of vCPUs assigned to each CVM.
  2. Review host CPU utilization.
  3. Assess cluster SSD capacity.
  4. Enable VM memory oversubscription.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

CPU Ready Time indicates how long a VM waits for CPU resources due to contention.
Option B (Review host CPU utilization) is correct:
If CPU utilization is high, there may be excessive CPU overcommitment, leading to high CPU Ready Time.
Adding more hosts or reducing vCPU allocations may resolve the issue.
Option A (Check CVM vCPUs) is incorrect:
The Controller VM (CVM) does not directly impact application VM performance in this case.
Option C (Assess SSD capacity) is incorrect:
CPU Ready Time is unrelated to storage performance.
Option D (Enable VM memory oversubscription) is incorrect:
Memory oversubscription does not affect CPU contention.


Reference:

Nutanix Prism Central Guide Troubleshooting VM Performance Nutanix KB Identifying High CPU Ready Time and Solutions



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Share your comments for Nutanix NCP-MCI v6.10 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:49:11 AM

Question 3:
Question 3 asks for two valid ways to meet the purchase order creation validation (warn if the vendor is on the exclusion list for the customer/product and block/alert accordingly).
Correct answers: C and D

  • C: In Application Explorer, create a form extension and implement validation.
- Extend the Purchase Order creation form and add validation logic (e.g., before save/submit) to check VendExclusions for the customer/item and show a warning or block the PO as needed.
  • D: Implement Chain of Command (CoC) and method wrapping by creating a form extension class.
- Use CoC to wrap the target PO creation method, perform the exclusion check after calling super(), and enforce the rule (warning or prevent creation).
Why not A or B?
  • A (class with a form data source event handler) is not the standard pattern for this UI-level validation scenario and is less direct for enforcing creation-time behavior.
  • B (table extension with validation) cannot sufficiently enforce the UI-level workflow or trigger user-facing warnings during PO creation.

So, the two valid techniques are C and D, reflecting the recommended form-extension patterns: direct form validation and CoC-based method wrapping.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

Oslo, Norway
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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