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Juniper Data Center Professional JN0-683 Dumps in PDF

Free Juniper JN0-683 Real Questions (page: 7)

JN0-683 PDF — 94 Questions

Exhibit.



Connections between hosts connected to Leaf-1 and Leaf-2 are not working correctly.

  1. Referring to the exhibit, which two configuration changes are required to solve the problem? (Choose two.)
  2. Configure the set switch-options vtep-source-interface irb.0 parameter on Leaf-1.
  3. Configure the set switch-options vrf-target target:65000:l parameteron Leaf-2.
  4. Configure the set switch-options route-distinguisher i92.168.100.50:i parameter on Leaf-1.
  5. Configure the set switch-options service-id 1 parameter on Leaf-2.

Answer(s): C,E

Explanation:

Issue Analysis:
The problem in the exhibit suggests a mismatch in configuration parameters between Leaf-1 and Leaf-2, leading to communication issues between hosts connected to these leaf devices.
Configuration Mismatches:
Service-ID: Leaf-1 has service-id 1 configured, while Leaf-2 does not have this parameter. For consistency and proper operation, the service-id should be the same across both leaf devices. VRF Target: Leaf-1 is configured with vrf-target target:65000:1, while Leaf-2 is configured with vrf- target target:65000:2. To allow proper VRF import/export between the two leafs, these should match.
Corrective Actions:
C . Configure the set switch-options vrf-target target:65000:1 parameter on Leaf-2: This aligns the VRF targets between the two leaf devices, ensuring they can correctly import and export routes. E . Configure the set switch-options service-id 1 parameter on Leaf-2: This ensures that both Leaf-1 and Leaf-2 use the same service ID, which is necessary for consistency in the EVPN-VXLAN setup.
Data Center


Reference:

Correct configuration of VRF targets and service IDs is critical in EVPN-VXLAN setups to ensure that routes and services are correctly shared and recognized between different devices in the network fabric.



What are three actions available tor MAC move limiting? (Choose three.)

  1. drop
  2. filter
  3. enable
  4. log
  5. shutdown

Answer(s): A,D,E

Explanation:

MAC Move Limiting:
MAC move limiting is a security feature used in network switches to detect and mitigate rapid changes in MAC address locations, which could indicate a network issue or an attack such as MAC flapping or spoofing.
When a MAC address is learned on a different interface than it was previously learned, the switch can take various actions to prevent potential issues.
Available Actions:
A . drop: This action drops packets from the MAC address if it violates the move limit, effectively blocking communication from the offending MAC address. D . log: This action logs the MAC move event without disrupting traffic, allowing network administrators to monitor and investigate the event.
E . shutdown: This action shuts down the interface on which the MAC address violation occurred, effectively stopping all traffic on that interface to prevent further issues.
Other Actions (Not Correct):
B . filter: Filtering is not typically associated with MAC move limiting; it generally refers to applying ACLs or other mechanisms to filter traffic.
C . enable: This is not an action related to MAC move limiting, as it does not represent a specific reaction to a MAC move event.
Data Center


Reference:

MAC move limiting is crucial for maintaining network stability and security, particularly in environments with dynamic or large-scale Layer 2 networks where MAC addresses might frequently change locations.



Exhibit.



Referring to the exhibit, the spinel device has an underlay BGP group that is configured to peer with its neighbors' directly connected interfaces.
Which two statements are true in this scenario? (Choose two.)

  1. The multihop statement is not required to establish the underlay BGP sessions.
  2. Load balancing for the underlay is not configured correctly.
  3. The multihop statement is required to establish the underlay BGP sessions.
  4. Load balancing for the underlay is configured correctly.

Answer(s): A,D

Explanation:

Understanding BGP Configuration in the Exhibit:
The exhibit shows a BGP configuration on spine1 with a group named underlay, configured to peer with directly connected interfaces of other devices in the network. Multipath multiple-as: This statement allows the router to install multiple paths in the routing table for routes learned from different ASes, facilitating load balancing.
Key Statements:
A . The multihop statement is not required to establish the underlay BGP sessions: In this case, the BGP peers are directly connected (as indicated by their neighbor IP addresses), so the multihop statement is unnecessary. Multihop is typically used when BGP peers are not directly connected and packets need to traverse multiple hops.
D . Load balancing for the underlay is configured correctly: The multipath { multiple-as; } statement in the configuration enables load balancing across multiple paths from different autonomous systems, which is appropriate for underlay networks in data center fabrics.
Incorrect Statements:

C . The multihop statement is required to establish the underlay BGP sessions: This is incorrect because the peers are directly connected, making the multihop statement unnecessary. B . Load balancing for the underlay is not configured correctly: This is incorrect because the configuration includes the necessary multipath settings for load balancing.
Data Center


Reference:

BGP configurations in EVPN-VXLAN underlay networks are crucial for ensuring redundancy, load balancing, and efficient route propagation across the data center fabric.



You want to provide a OCI that keeps each data center routing domain isolated, while also supporting translation of VNIs.
Which DCI scheme allows these features?

  1. MPLS DCI label exchange
  2. over the top (OTT) with VNI translation enabled
  3. VXLAN stitching
  4. over the top (OTT) with proxy gateways

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Understanding DCI (Data Center Interconnect) Schemes:
DCI schemes are used to connect multiple data centers, enabling seamless communication and resource sharing between them. The choice of DCI depends on the specific requirements, such as isolation, VNI translation, or routing domain separation.
VXLAN Stitching:
VXLAN stitching involves connecting multiple VXLAN segments, allowing VNIs (VXLAN Network Identifiers) from different segments to communicate with each other while maintaining separate routing domains.
This approach is particularly effective for keeping routing domains isolated while supporting VNI translation, making it ideal for scenarios where you need to connect different data centers or networks without merging their control planes.
Other Options:
A . MPLS DCI label exchange: This option typically focuses on MPLS-based interconnections and does not inherently support VNI translation or isolation in the context of VXLAN.

B . Over the top (OTT) with VNI translation enabled: This could support VNI translation but does not inherently ensure routing domain isolation.
D . Over the top (OTT) with proxy gateways: This typically involves using external gateways for traffic routing and may not directly support VNI translation or isolation in the same way as VXLAN stitching.
Data Center


Reference:

VXLAN stitching is a powerful method in multi-data center environments, allowing for flexibility in connecting various VXLAN segments while preserving network isolation and supporting complex interconnect requirements.



Exhibit.



Given the configuration shown in the exhibit, why has the next hop remained the same for the EVPN routes advertised to the peer 203.0.113.2?

  1. EVPN routes cannot have the next hop changed.
  2. The export policy is incorrectly configured.
  3. The vrf-export parameter must be applied.
  4. The vpn-apply-export parameter must be applied to this peer.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Understanding the Configuration:
The configuration shown in the exhibit involves an EVPN (Ethernet VPN) setup using BGP as the routing protocol. The export policy named CHANGE_NH is applied to the BGP group evpn-peer,

which includes a rule to change the next hop for routes that match the policy.
Issue with Next Hop Not Changing:
The policy CHANGE_NH is correctly configured to change the next hop to 203.0.113.10 for the matching routes. However, the next hop remains unchanged when advertising EVPN routes to the peer 203.0.113.2.
Reason for the Issue:
In Junos OS, when exporting routes for VPNs (including EVPN), the next-hop change defined in a policy will not take effect unless the vpn-apply-export parameter is used in the BGP configuration. This parameter ensures that the export policy is applied specifically to VPN routes. The vpn-apply-export parameter must be included to apply the next-hop change to EVPN routes.
Correct Answer
D . The vpn-apply-export parameter must be applied to this peer: This is the correct solution because the next hop in EVPN routes won't be altered without this parameter in the BGP configuration. It instructs the BGP process to apply the export policy to the EVPN routes.
Data Center


Reference:

This behavior is standard in EVPN deployments with Juniper Networks devices, where the export policies applied to VPN routes require explicit invocation using vpn-apply-export to take effect.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

Innisfil, Canada
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

Oslo, Norway
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
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