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Juniper Security, Professional JN0-636 Dumps in PDF

Free Juniper JN0-636 Real Questions (page: 23)

JN0-636 PDF — 115 Questions

Your company wants to use the Juniper Seclntel feeds to block access to known command and control servers, but they do not want to use Security Director to manage the feeds.
Which two Juniper devices work in this situation? (Choose two)

  1. EX Series devices
  2. MX Series devices
  3. SRX Series devices
  4. QFX Series devices

Answer(s): B,C

Explanation:

Juniper MX and SRX series devices support the integration of Seclntel feeds, which provide information about known command and control servers, for the purpose of blocking access to them. These devices can be configured to use the Seclntel feeds without the need for Security Director to manage the feeds.
EX series and QFX series devices are not capable of working in this situation, as they do not support the integration of Seclntel feeds.
According to the Juniper documentation, the two Juniper devices that work in this situation are MX Series devices and SRX Series devices. These devices can use the Juniper SecIntel feeds to block access to known command and control servers without using Security Director to manage the feeds. The Juniper SecIntel feeds are curated and verified threat intelligence data that are continuously collected from Juniper ATP Cloud, Juniper Threat Labs, and other sources. The SecIntel feeds include command and control IPs, URLs, certificate hashes, and domains that are used by attackers to control malware or maintain their connection to the network.
The MX Series devices and the SRX Series devices can subscribe to the SecIntel feeds by using the following steps:
Configure the SecIntel service on the device by specifying the SecIntel URL, the SecIntel policy, and the SecIntel license.
Configure the SecIntel policy on the device by specifying the SecIntel feeds, the SecIntel actions, and the SecIntel logging.
Apply the SecIntel policy to the security zones or the firewall policies on the device by using the secintel-policy option.
Once the SecIntel service is configured and applied, the MX Series devices and the SRX Series devices will receive the SecIntel feeds from Juniper ATP Cloud and use them to block the traffic from or to the command and control servers. The SecIntel service will also send the SecIntel logs to Juniper ATP Cloud or a third-party SIEM solution for further analysis and reporting. The following devices are not suitable or incorrect for this situation:
EX Series devices: EX Series devices are Ethernet switches that can integrate with SecIntel to block infected hosts at the switch port. However, they cannot use the SecIntel feeds to block command and control servers, as they do not support the SecIntel service or policy. QFX Series devices: QFX Series devices are Ethernet switches that can integrate with SecIntel to block infected hosts at the switch port. However, they cannot use the SecIntel feeds to block command and control servers, as they do not support the SecIntel service or policy.


Reference:

1: SecIntel Threat Intelligence 2: Configuring SecIntel Service 3: Configuring SecIntel Policy 4: Applying SecIntel Policy : [SecIntel Logging] : [SecIntel Integration with EX Series Switches] :
[SecIntel Integration with QFX Series Switches]



To analyze and detect malware, Juniper ATP Cloud performs which two functions? (Choose two.)

  1. cache lookup: to see if the file is seen already and known to be malicious
  2. antivirus scan: with a single vendor solution to see if the file contains any potential threats
  3. dynamic analysis: to see what happens if you execute the file in a real environment
  4. static analysis: to see what happens if you execute the file in a real environment

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

Juniper ATP Cloud performs cache lookup to see if the file is seen already and known to be malicious and dynamic analysis to see what happens if you execute the file in a real environment.

Cache lookup is one of the functions that Juniper ATP Cloud performs to analyze and detect malware. Cache lookup is the first step in the pipeline approach that Juniper ATP Cloud uses to examine files. Cache lookup checks whether the file has been seen before and whether it has a stored verdict in the database. If the file is known to be malicious, the verdict is returned to the SRX Series Firewall and the file is dropped. If the file is not found in the cache, the analysis continues with the other techniques.
Dynamic analysis is another function that Juniper ATP Cloud performs to analyze and detect malware. Dynamic analysis runs the file in a sandbox environment and observes its behavior and actions. Dynamic analysis can reveal the hidden or obfuscated functionality of malware, such as network connections, file modifications, registry changes, and process injections. Dynamic analysis can also detect zero-day threats and evasive malware that try to avoid static analysis.


Reference:

How is Malware Analyzed and Detected? | ATP Cloud | Juniper Networks



Exhibit



You are validating bidirectional traffic flows through your IPsec tunnel. The 4546 session represents traffic being sourced from the remote end of the IPsec tunnel. The 4547 session represents traffic that is sourced from the local network destined to the remote network.
Which statement is correct regarding the output shown in the exhibit?

  1. The remote gateway address for the IPsec tunnel is 10.20.20.2
  2. The session information indicates that the IPsec tunnel has not been established
  3. The local gateway address for the IPsec tunnel is 10.20.20.2
  4. NAT is being used to change the source address of outgoing packets

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

According to the output shown in the exhibit, which is a security flow session on an SRX Series device, the correct statement is that the local gateway address for the IPsec tunnel is 10.20.20.2. This is indicated by the line In: 10.20.20.2/2060 -> 10.20.20.1/3382, which shows that the source IP address of the incoming packet is 10.20.20.2, which is the local gateway address of the IPsec tunnel. The destination IP address of the incoming packet is 10.20.20.1, which is the remote gateway address of the IPsec tunnel.
The following statements are incorrect or not supported by the output:
The remote gateway address for the IPsec tunnel is 10.20.20.2. This is false, as explained above. The remote gateway address for the IPsec tunnel is 10.20.20.1, not 10.20.20.2. The session information indicates that the IPsec tunnel has not been established. This is false, as the output shows that there are two active sessions with the communication tag IPSec VPN: vpn1, which indicates that the IPsec tunnel has been established and is named vpn. NAT is being used to change the source address of outgoing packets. This is not supported by the output, as there is no indication of NAT being applied to the outgoing packets. The source IP address of the outgoing packet is 192.168.1.1, which is the same as the source IP address of the original packet. If NAT was being used, the source IP address of the outgoing packet would be different from the source IP address of the original packet.


Reference:

1: show security flow session - Technical Documentation - Support - Juniper Networks



Exhibit



Which two statements are correct about the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

  1. The packet is silently discarded.
  2. The packet is part of an existing session.
  3. The packet is part of a new session.
  4. The packet is explicitly rejected.

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

The packet is silently discarded because the traceoptions output shows that the packet is dropped with the flag flow_spu_drop, which indicates that the packet is dropped by the SPU without sending any response to the sender. The traceoptions output also shows the reason for the drop as "no session found, start first path. in_tunnel - 0, from_cp_flag - 0" which means that the packet does not match any existing session and is not part of a tunnel or a control plane traffic. The packet is part of a new session because the traceoptions output shows that the packet is the first packet of a TCP connection with the flag flow_tcp_syn, which indicates that the packet has the SYN flag set. The traceoptions output also shows that the packet is processed in the first path packet flow with the message "no session found, start first path" which means that the packet is initiating a new session.


Reference:

traceoptions (Security Flow) | Junos OS | Juniper Networks [SRX] How to interpret Flow TraceOptions output for NAT troubleshooting



You are asked to provide single sign-on (SSO) to Juniper ATP Cloud.
Which two steps accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

  1. Configure Microsoft Azure as the service provider (SP).
  2. Configure Microsoft Azure as the identity provider (IdP).
  3. Configure Juniper ATP Cloud as the service provider (SP).
  4. Configure Juniper ATP Cloud as the identity provider (IdP).

Answer(s): B,C

Explanation:

To provide single sign-on (SSO) to Juniper ATP Cloud, you need to configure the following:
Microsoft Azure as the identity provider (IdP): This allows users to authenticate to Juniper ATP Cloud using their Azure credentials.
Juniper ATP Cloud as the service provider (SP): This allows Juniper ATP Cloud to accept the authentication from Microsoft Azure and provide SSO access to the users. Configuring Microsoft Azure as the service provider (SP) and Juniper ATP Cloud as the identity provider (IdP) are not the correct steps to provide SSO, as the roles are reversed.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
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