ISACA Certified Information Security Manager CISM Dumps in PDF

Free ISACA CISM Real Questions (page: 9)

The chief information security officer (CISO) should ideally have a direct reporting relationship to the:

  1. head of internal audit.
  2. chief operations officer (COO).
  3. chief technology officer (CTO).
  4. legal counsel.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The chief information security officer (CISO) should ideally report to as high a level within the organization as possible. Among the choices given, the chief operations officer (COO) would have not only the appropriate level but also the knowledge of day-to-day operations. The head of internal audit and legal counsel would make good secondary choices, although they would not be as knowledgeable of the operations. Reporting to the chief technology officer (CTO) could become problematic as the CTO's goals for the infrastructure might, at times, run counter to the goals of information security.



Which of the following is the MOST essential task for a chief information security officer (CISO) to perform?

  1. Update platform-level security settings
  2. Conduct disaster recovery test exercises
  3. Approve access to critical financial systems
  4. Develop an information security strategy paper

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Developing a strategy paper on information security would be the most appropriate. Approving access would be the job of the data owner. Updating platform-level security and conducting recovery test exercises would be less essential since these are administrative tasks.



Developing a successful business case for the acquisition of information security software products can BEST be assisted by:

  1. assessing the frequency of incidents.
  2. quantifying the cost of control failures.
  3. calculating return on investment (ROI) projections.
  4. comparing spending against similar organizations.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Calculating the return on investment (ROI) will most closely align security with the impact on the bottom line. Frequency and cost of incidents are factors that go into determining the impact on the business but, by themselves, are insufficient. Comparing spending against similar organizations can be problematic since similar organizations may have different business goals and appetites for risk.



When an information security manager is developing a strategic plan for information security, the timeline for the plan should be:

  1. aligned with the IT strategic plan.
  2. based on the current rate of technological change.
  3. three-to-five years for both hardware and software.
  4. aligned with the business strategy.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Any planning for information security should be properly aligned with the needs of the business. Technology should not come before the needs of the business, nor should planning be done on an artificial timetable that ignores business needs.



Which of the following is the MOST important information to include in a strategic plan for information security?

  1. Information security staffing requirements
  2. Current state and desired future state
  3. IT capital investment requirements
  4. information security mission statement

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

It is most important to paint a vision for the future and then draw a road map from the stalling point to the desired future state. Staffing, capital investment and the mission all stem from this foundation.



Share your comments for ISACA CISM exam with other users:

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

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Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

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Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

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Alex
5/24/2025 12:54:15 AM

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11/28/2024 7:17:38 AM

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