ISACA Certified Information Security Manager CISM Dumps in PDF

Free ISACA CISM Real Questions (page: 11)

From an information security manager perspective, what is the immediate benefit of clearly-defined roles and responsibilities?

  1. Enhanced policy compliance
  2. Improved procedure flows
  3. Segregation of duties
  4. Better accountability

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Without well-defined roles and responsibilities, there cannot be accountability. Choice A is incorrect because policy compliance requires adequately defined accountability first and therefore is a byproduct. Choice B is incorrect because people can be assigned to execute procedures that are not well designed. Choice C is incorrect because segregation of duties is not automatic, and roles may still include conflicting duties.



An internal audit has identified major weaknesses over IT processing. Which of the following should an information security manager use to BEST convey a sense of urgency to management?

  1. Security metrics reports
  2. Risk assessment reports
  3. Business impact analysis (BIA)
  4. Return on security investment report

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Performing a risk assessment will allow the information security manager to prioritize the remedial measures and provide a means to convey a sense of urgency to management. Metrics reports are normally contained within the methodology of the risk assessment to give it credibility and provide an ongoing tool. The business impact analysis (BIA) covers continuity risks only. Return on security investment cannot be determined until a plan is developed based on the BIA.



Reviewing which of the following would BEST ensure that security controls are effective?

  1. Risk assessment policies
  2. Return on security investment
  3. Security metrics
  4. User access rights

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Reviewing security metrics provides senior management a snapshot view and trends of an organization's security posture. Choice A is incorrect because reviewing risk assessment policies would not ensure that the controls are actually working. Choice B is incorrect because reviewing returns on security investments provides business justifications in implementing controls, but does not measure effectiveness of the control itself. Choice D is incorrect because reviewing user access rights is a joint responsibility of the data custodian and the data owner, and does not measure control effectiveness.



Which of the following is responsible for legal and regulatory liability?

  1. Chief security officer (CSO)
  2. Chief legal counsel (CLC)
  3. Board and senior management
  4. Information security steering group

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The board of directors and senior management are ultimately responsible for all that happens in the organization. The others are not individually liable for failures of security in the organization.



While implementing information security governance an organization should FIRST:

  1. adopt security standards.
  2. determine security baselines.
  3. define the security strategy.
  4. establish security policies.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The first step in implementing information security governance is to define the security strategy based on which security baselines are determined. Adopting suitable security- standards, performing risk assessment and implementing security policy are steps that follow the definition of the security strategy.



Share your comments for ISACA CISM exam with other users:

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

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Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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6/9/2025 7:37:29 AM

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11/28/2024 7:17:38 AM

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1/25/2025 9:17:57 AM

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2/15/2024 11:36:57 AM

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