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ISACA Advanced in AI Security Management AAISM Dumps in PDF

Free ISACA AAISM Real Questions (page: 33)

AAISM PDF — 371 Questions

An organization develops and implements an AI-based plug-in for users that summarizes their individual emails.
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with this application?

  1. Insufficient rate limiting for APIs
  2. Data format incompatibility
  3. Lack of application vulnerability scanning
  4. Inadequate controls over parameters

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

An AI-based email summarization plug-in processes sensitive personal and business information. If parameters controlling data access, processing scope, or output are insufficiently restricted, the application could expose confidential content, mishandle sensitive information, or generate inaccurate summaries, posing the greatest risk.



Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of implementing an AI tool to safeguard sensitive data and prevent unauthorized access?

  1. Timely initiation of incident response
  2. Reduced number of false positives
  3. Timely analysis of endpoint activities
  4. Reduced need for data classification

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

AI tools that monitor sensitive data and access patterns can quickly detect anomalies or potential breaches. Early detection enables prompt initiation of incident response, minimizing the impact of unauthorized access and improving overall data security posture.



Which of the following would BEST help mitigate vulnerabilities associated with hidden triggers in generative AI
models?

  1. Monitoring model outputs and suspicious patterns to detect trigger activations
  2. Regularly retraining the model using a diverse data set
  3. Applying differential privacy and masking sensitive patterns in the training data
  4. Incorporating adversarial training to expose and neutralize potential triggers

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Adversarial training involves deliberately introducing challenging or malicious inputs during model development to identify hidden triggers. By exposing these vulnerabilities, the AI model can be adjusted or fortified, reducing the risk of malicious activation of undesired behaviors.



Which of the following is the MOST important course of action prior to placing an in-house developed AI solution into production?

  1. Deploy a prototype of the solution.
  2. Perform a privacy, security, and compliance gap analysis.
  3. Obtain senior management sign-off.
  4. Perform testing, evaluation, validation, and verification.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Before deploying an AI solution into production, it is critical to thoroughly test and validate its performance, accuracy, and reliability. Verification ensures the system meets design specifications, while validation confirms it fulfills intended use cases. This step mitigates operational, ethical, and regulatory risks.



Which of the following is a key risk indicator (KRI) for an AI system used for threat detection?

  1. Number of training epochs
  2. Number of layers in the neural network
  3. Training time of the model
  4. Number of system overrides by cyber analysts

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Frequent overrides indicate that the AI system’s threat detection outputs are often incorrect or require human correction. Monitoring this KRI helps assess the system’s reliability, effectiveness, and risk exposure, guiding improvements and governance decisions.



The PRIMARY benefit of implementing moderation controls in generative AI applications is that it can:

  1. filter out harmful or inappropriate content.
  2. increase the model's ability to generate diverse and creative content.
  3. ensure the generated content adheres to privacy regulations.
  4. optimize the model's response time.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Moderation controls act as a safeguard to detect and block outputs that are offensive, unsafe, or otherwise inappropriate. This reduces ethical, legal, and reputational risks associated with generative AI applications while maintaining user trust.



Which of the following should be a PRIMARY consideration when defining recovery point objectives (RPOs) and recovery time objectives (RTOs) for generative AI solutions?

  1. Prioritizing computational efficiency over data integrity to minimize downtime
  2. Maintaining consistent hardware configurations to prevent discrepancies during model restoration
  3. Preserving the most recent versions of data models to avoid inaccuracies in functionality
  4. Ensuring the backup system can restore training data sets within the defined RTO window

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

For generative AI solutions, the latest model versions capture critical learned patterns and performance improvements. Preserving these ensures that, after a disruption, the AI system can resume accurate and reliable functionality, aligning recovery objectives with operational and business requirements.



Which of the following is the MOST effective use of AI in incident response?

  1. Streamlining incident response testing
  2. Automating incident response triage
  3. Ensuring chain of custody
  4. Improving incident response playbook

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

AI can rapidly analyze alerts, prioritize incidents, and categorize threats, enabling faster and more efficient triage. This reduces human workload, accelerates response times, and ensures that critical incidents receive immediate attention, enhancing the overall effectiveness of incident response.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

UNITED STATES
T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

NEW ZEALAND
V
Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

Anonymous
K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

Anonymous
K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

Anonymous
E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

UNITED KINGDOM
V
vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

i need to pass exam for VMware 2V0-11.25

Anonymous
M
Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

UNITED STATES
O
OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

great dumps to practice for the exam

SOUTH AFRICA
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