Fortinet FCSS - Network Security 7.6 Support Engineer FCSS_NST_SE-7.6 Dumps in PDF

Free Fortinet FCSS_NST_SE-7.6 Real Questions (page: 5)

Refer to the exhibit.



Which three pieces of information does the diagnose sys top command provide? (Choose three.)

  1. The miglogd daemon is running on CPU core ID 0.
  2. The diagnose sys top command has been running for 18 minutes.
  3. The miglogd daemon would be on top of the list, if the administrator pressed m on the keyboard.
  4. The cmdbsvr process is occupying 2.4% of the total user memory space.
  5. If the neweli daemon continues to be in the R state, it will need to be manually restarted.

Answer(s): A,C,D

Explanation:

https://community.fortinet.com/t5/FortiGate/Technical-Tip-Using-the-diagnose-sys-top-CLI- command/ta-p/190238



Refer to the exhibit, which shows the output o! the BGP database.



Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

  1. The advertised prefix of 10.20.30.0/24 was configured using the network command.
  2. The first four prefixes are being advertised using a legacy route advertisement.
  3. The advertised prefix of 10.20.30.0/24 is being advertised through the redistribution of another routing protocol.
  4. The output shows all prefixes advertised by all neighbors as well as the local router.

Answer(s): A,D

Explanation:

For Option A:
In Fortinet BGP (and standard BGP), when a prefix is displayed with an "i" (lowercase i) in the Path column, it represents an internal prefix that originated from the local router, typically configured via the BGP "network" command. In the exhibit, the prefix 10.20.30.0/24 is listed with a Path value of i, indicating it was injected into BGP by the local router using the network statement, not via redistribution from another routing protocol. The same logic applies to i as documented: "Origin code 'i' means the route was injected via the network command."

For Option D:
The get router info bgp network output is a summary table displaying both local and received BGP routes. It lists all known routes to the BGP process, whether received from peers or originated locally. The exhibit shows all BGP prefixes known to the local router, matching the official admin guide's description of this command's output.

Explanation for B and C:

The phrase "legacy route advertisement" is not formalized in BGP documentation or Fortinet's admin guide; the output uses standard BGP mechanics.

If a route was redistributed into BGP from another routing protocol, the Path field would display a "?" (question mark) for incomplete (redistributed) origin. Here the /24 route has "i" so it is NOT a redistribution.


Reference:

FortiOS Administration Guide: BGP Configuration and Route Table Interpretation

Official BGP Command

Show BGP Network, Path Codes, Route Origination Indicators



In which two slates is a given session categorized as ephemeral? (Choose two.)

  1. A UDP session with only one packet received
  2. A UOP session with packets sent and received
  3. A TCP session waiting for the SYN ACK
  4. A TCP session waiting for FIN ACK

Answer(s): A,C



Refer to the exhibit, which shows the output of get router info bgp summary.



Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

  1. The local ForliGate has received one prefix from BGP neighbor 100.64.1.254.
  2. The TCP connection with BGP neighbor 100.64.2.254 was successful.
  3. The local FortiGate has received 18 packets from a BGP neighbor.
  4. The local FortiGate is still calculating the prefixes received from BGP neighbor 100.64.2.264

Answer(s): A,C

Explanation:

The get router info bgp summary output lists BGP neighbor status:

Prefix Reception: The "State/PfxRcd" column shows the number of prefixes received from the neighbor--neighbor 100.64.1.254 has "1", confirming option A.

Received Message Count: Under "MsgRcvd", 18 packets have been received from neighbor 100.64.1.254. This matches option C.

The second neighbor 100.64.2.254 is in "Active" state and has received/sent 0 packets, indicating that its TCP connection is NOT established, disproving option B.

There is no indication anywhere that the router is "still calculating" prefixes; "Active" just means no session is established, so option D is incorrect.


Reference:

FortiOS BGP Command
BGP Neighbor States, PfxRcd, and Counters



Which exchange lakes care of DoS protection in IKEv2?

  1. Create_CHILD_SA
  2. IKE_Auth
  3. IKE_Req_INIT
  4. IKE_SA_NIT

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The IKE_SA_INIT exchange in IKEv2 is responsible for DoS protection measures. During IKE_SA_INIT, before authentication and further exchange, the responder can use cookie challenges (per RFC 7296 and Fortinet VPN documentation). If a DoS attack is suspected (many requests from the same source), the responder replies with a cookie. Only after the initiator returns the correct cookie does the exchange proceed, protecting the responder from state exhaustion and certain forms of DoS traffic at the handshake stage.


Reference:

FortiOS VPN Manual: IKEv2 Exchange Process and DoS Protections

IKEv2 RFC 7296: Description of IKE_SA_INIT and DoS Cookie Mechanism



Refer to the exhibit, which shows a partial output of the fssod daemon real-time debug command.



What two conclusions can you draw from the output? (Choose two.)

  1. The workstation with IP 10.124.2.90 will be polled frequently using TCP port 445 to see if the user is still logged on.
  2. The logon event can be seen on the collector agent installed on Windows.
  3. FSSO is using DC agent mode to detect logon events.
  4. FSSO is using agentless polling mode to detect logon events.

Answer(s): A,D

Explanation:

https://community.fortinet.com/t5/FortiGate/Troubleshooting-Tip-How-to-troubleshoot-FSSO- agentless-polling/ta-p/214349

From the snippet we can see that FortiGate (via the fssod daemon) is directly detecting the user logon rather than relying on a separate "collector" or "DC agent." This indicates agentless polling-- FortiGate polls the DC's event logs over TCP 445 to discover logons. So: - FSSO is using agentless polling mode to detect logon events - In agentless mode, FortiGate will periodically poll the same IP (the DC) on port 445 to see if the user is still logged on



An administrator wants to capture encrypted phase 2 traffic between two FotiGate devices using the built-in sniffer.

If the administrator knows that there Is no NAT device located between both FortiGate devices, which command should the administrator run?

  1. diagnose sniffer packet any 'udp port 500'
  2. diagnose sniffer packet any 'lp proto 50'
  3. diagnose sniffer packet any 'udp port 4500'
  4. diagnose sniffer packet any 'ah'

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

To capture encrypted IPsec phase 2 (ESP) traffic between two FortiGate devices, the correct protocol filter to use is ip proto 50. According to the Fortinet official sniffing and debugging documentation, ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload) is used for encrypted phase 2 payload transfer and always uses IP protocol number 50. Running the command diagnose sniffer packet any 'ip proto 50' captures only ESP packets, which represent the encrypted traffic--whether originating or transiting the device.

If there is no NAT device between FortiGates, ESP is not encapsulated in UDP (thus not on UDP port 4500; if NAT-T were required, packets would be UDP-encapsulated, but the scenario explicitly says

NAT is not in use). UDP port 500 is for IKE control (negotiation) traffic, and AH (Authentication Header, ip proto 51) is not used for encryption in standard IPsec phase 2 with ESP.

This matches the official CLI reference from Fortinet for VPN and traffic analysis.

**


Reference:

FortiOS CLI
diagnose sniffer packet, ESP, IP Protocol Numbers

FortiGate VPN Administration Guide: Traffic Capture and Analysis of IPsec Traffic



Refer to the exhibits.



An administrator Is expecting to receive advertised route 8.8.8.8/32 from FGT-A. On FGT-B, they confirm that the route is being advertised and received, however, the route is not being injected into the routing table.
What is the most likely cause of this issue?

  1. A batter route to the 8.8.8.8/32 network exists in the routing table.
  2. FGT-B is configured with a prefix list denying the 8.8.8.8/32 network to be injected into the routing table.
  3. The administrator has misconfigured redistribution of routes on FGT-A.
  4. FGT-8 is configured with a distribution list denying the 8.8.8.8/32 network to be injected into the routing table.

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The 8.8.8.8/32 route is visible in the OSPF database on FGT-B but not installed into the routing table--the most likely explanation is that FGT-B is filtering it from being installed.



Share your comments for Fortinet FCSS_NST_SE-7.6 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

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V
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9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

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9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

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