Fortinet NSE 6 - LAN Edge 7.6 Architect FCSS_LED_AR-7.6 Dumps in PDF

Free Fortinet FCSS_LED_AR-7.6 Real Questions (page: 4)

Which statement about generating a certificate signing request (CSR) for a CER certificate is true?

  1. Inaccurate or missing fields in the CSR will prevent the CA from validating the request, leading to the rejection of the certificate and possible delays in the deployment process.
  2. If key fields like the common name (CN) and organization (O) are incorrect, the certification authority (CA) will still issue the certificate, but it may not be trusted by certain applications or systems that rely on accurate field information for validation.
  3. CSR fields are primarily used for internal recordkeeping by the requesting organization, and only the public key in the CSR must be accurate for successful certificate signing.
  4. The fields in the CSR are primarily for documentation purposes; any missing or incorrect information will be automatically corrected by the CA during the signing process.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The FortiOS documentation explicitly states that a CSR used for certificate signing must contain accurate and valid fields, especially:

Common Name (CN)

Organization (O)

Country (C)

Public key parameters

According to the FortiGate certificate section:

Incorrect CSR field information can cause the CA to reject the request.

Reasons include:

The CA validates identity and organizational information.

Missing or malformed data invalidates PKI requirements.

The CSR is not corrected automatically by the CA.

Therefore:

A is correct.

Options B­D contradict PKI principles:

B is false: CAs do not issue certificates with mismatched identity fields for public trust.

C is false: CSR fields are not only for internal use; they define certificate identity.

D is false: CAs do not auto-correct CSR fields.



Why is it critical to maintain NTP synchronization between FortiGate and FortiSwitch when FortiLink is configured?

  1. To facilitate synchronization of firmware updates across devices
  2. To allow FortiSwitch to communicate with other FortiSwitche devices in the network.
  3. To ensure accurate time for logs, authentication, and event correlation
  4. To allow FortiSwitch to function in standalone mode if FortiGate becomes unavailable

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

FortiGate and FortiSwitchmust share synchronized timewhen operating in FortiLink mode.

Documented reasons in FortiOS:

Accurate time synchronization is required for logs, authentication events, and fabric correlations.

Why it's critical:

802.1X EAP and RADIUS timestamp validation

NAC policy enforcement timestamps

Certificate validation

Log correlation in Security Fabric / FortiAnalyzer

Incorrect options:

A: Firmware synchronization does NOT require NTP.

B: Switch-to-switch communication does not depend on NTP.

D: Standalone mode is unrelated to time sync.



In addition to requiring a FortiAnalyzer device to configure the Security Fabric, which license must be added to FortiAnalyzer to use Indicators of Compromise (IOC) rules?

  1. loT Security Add-on license
  2. IOC Subscription license
  3. IOC detection is included on FAZ-Basic license
  4. Threat Detection Service license

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

FortiAnalyzer requires a specific license to evaluateIndicators of Compromise (IOC).

From theFortiAnalyzer 7.4.1 Administration Guide:

IOC identification requires theThreat Detection Servicelicense on FortiAnalyzer.

This license enables:

IOC database updates

Compromised host detection

Event correlation based on FortiGuard threat intelligence

Fabric-wide IOC automation triggers

Why the other answers are incorrect:

A: IoT Security add-on is unrelated to IOC rules.

B: There isnoIOC subscription license type for FortiAnalyzer.

C: FAZ-Basic license doesNOTinclude IOC detection.



Refer to the exhibits.



An LDAP server has been successfully configured on FortiGate. which forwards LDAP authentication requests to a Windows Active Directory (AD) server. Wireless users report that they are unable to authenticate. Upon troubleshooting, you find that authentication fails when using MSCHAPv2.

What is the most likely reason for this issue?

  1. A firewall policy is missing an LDAP authentication rule.
  2. The Windows AD server requires LDAPS (LDAP over SSL) for authentication.
  3. The FortiGate LDAP configuration is missing the correct Bind DN.
  4. FortiGate does not support MSCHAPv2 for LDAP authentication.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

From the exhibit, LDAP on FortiGate is correctly configured and tested:

diagnose test authserver ldap FAC-LDAP wifi101 password authenticate 'wifi101' against 'FAC-LDAP' succeeded!

Group membership(s) - CN=Domain Users,...

So:

LDAP connectivity works

Bind DN, DN, CNID, and credentials are correct(so optionCis eliminated).

Firewall policies do not affect the802.1X / Wi-Fi authentication stepitself, soAis not the root cause.

Nothing in the scenario indicates that AD is enforcing LDAPS-only; the LDAP test already succeeds using the configured parameters, soBis also excluded.

The Wi-Fi supplicant is configured forPEAP with inner authentication = MSCHAPv2.

MSCHAPv2 is achallenge­response mechanism designed for RADIUS, not for LDAP simple bind. FortiGate's LDAP implementation uses asimple bind (username/password) over LDAP or LDAPS, and it doesnotimplement MSCHAPv2 against LDAP backends.

In Fortinet's design, if you needPEAP-MSCHAPv2 with Active Directory, you must use:

ARADIUS server(such as Windows NPS or FortiAuthenticator), and

Have FortiGate use RADIUS,notLDAP, as the authentication backend for 802.1X / Wi-Fi users.

Because FortiGate cannot process MSCHAPv2 exchanges directly against an LDAP server, authentication fails when the inner method is MSCHAPv2, even though LDAP works when tested with a simple bind from the CLI.



Refer to the exhibits.







Which include debug output and SSL VPN configuration details.

An SSL VPN has been configured on FortiGate. To enhance security, the administrator enabled Required Client Certificate in the SSL VPN settings. However, when a user attempts to connect, authentication fails.

Which configuration change is needed to fix the issue and allow the user to connect?

  1. Enable Redirect HTTP to SSL-VPN on the SSL VPN configuration page.
  2. Import the CA that signed the SSL VPN Server Certificate to FortiGate.
  3. Set the user certificate as the Server Certificate on the SSL VPN configuration page.
  4. Import the CA that signed the user certificate to FortiGate.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The SSL-VPN configuration hasRequire Client Certificateenabled.
When this is enabled, FortiOS performs two checks:

Normal user authentication(username/password or PKI user)

Additional client certificate check­ the client certificatemust be signed by a CA that FortiGate trusts

FortiOS documentation for "SSL VPN with certificate authentication" states:

"The client certificate only needs to be signed by a known CA in order to pass authentication."

"The CA certificate is the certificate that signed both the server certificate and the user certificate... The CA certificate is available to be imported on the FortiGate."

The debug output shows key lines:

__quick_check_peer-CA does not match.

Issuer of cert depth 0 is not detected in CMDB.

This tells us:

FortiGatedoes see the user's certificate,

Butcannot find the issuing CAin its local CA certificate store ("CMDB" = configuration database).

This means theCA that signed the user certificate has not been importedinto FortiGate.

Now evaluate the options:

A . Enable Redirect HTTP to SSL-VPN­ affects only redirection from HTTP to HTTPS; it has nothing to do with certificate validation.

B . Import the CA that signed the SSL VPN Server Certificate­ the server certificate is already working (the portal comes up) and its CA is not what the debug complains about; the error is about thepeer (user) certificate. Often the same CA signs both, but the failing check specifically says the issuer of the client cert is not in CMDB.

C . Set the user certificate as the Server Certificate­ incorrect; server and client certificates serve different roles.

D . Import the CA that signed the user certificate to FortiGate­ this directly addresses the debug error and aligns with the documented requirement that the CA which issued the user certificate must be known to FortiGate.



Refer to the exhibits.





Examine the FortiManager configuration and FortiGate CLI output shown in the exhibit.

The NAC feature is being tested with a device connected to port2 on managed FortiSwitch S224SPTF19005867. The NAC policy has been applied to port2, and traffic was generated from the test device. However, the traffic from the test device does not match the NAC policy and remains in the onboarding VLAN.

What are two possible reasons why the test device is not being correctly classified by the NAC policy? (Choose two.)

  1. Device detection is not enabled on VLAN 4089.
  2. The device operating system detected by FortiGate is not Linux.
  3. Management communication between FortiGate and FortiSwitch is down.
  4. The MAC address configured on the NAC policy is incorrect.

Answer(s): A,B

Explanation:

From the FortiManager NAC policy:

Category =Device

Match criteria includeMAC addressandOperating System = Linux

Action =Assign VLAN "Students"

From the FortiGate CLI:

diagnose switch-controller switch-info mac-table ...

MAC: 70:88:6b:8c:4a:ce VLAN: 4089 Port: port2

diagnose switch-controller mac-device mac onboarding

VLAN 4089 MAC 70:88:6b:8c:4a:ce

So the device is stuck inVLAN 4089, which is theonboarding VLAN. No NAC policy is matched.

For a NAC policy to match, FortiGate needsdevice-identity information, which comes fromdevice detection on the VLAN / FortiLink interfaceplus theattributes that the policy expects(OS, MAC, etc.).

A . Device detection is not enabled on VLAN 4089.

If device detection is disabled on the interface/VLAN where the endpoint lives, FortiGate cannot learn OS / device info.

Without this, the NAC engine cannot compare against the NAC policy (which relies on OS and other attributes), so the device remains in the onboarding VLAN.This is a valid root cause.

B . The device operating system detected by FortiGate is not Linux.

The NAC policy explicitly requiresOperating System = Linux.

If the endpoint is actually Windows/macOS, or the OS fingerprint is still "Unknown", the policy will never match, and the device stays in onboarding.Also a valid reason.

C . Management communication between FortiGate and FortiSwitch is down.

CLI output (switch-info mac-table and mac-device) proves FortiGate is talking to the switch and sees MAC/VLAN/port information.Not a valid reason.

D . The MAC address configured on the NAC policy is incorrect.

The exhibits show the MAC in the NAC policy matches the MAC appearing in the MAC table.Not the cause here.



A FortiSwitch is not appearing in the FortiGate management interface after being connected via FortiLink.
What could be a first troubleshooting step?

  1. Ensure that the FortiGate security policies allow traffic from the FortiSwitch.
  2. Manually assign a static IP to the FortiSwitch.
  3. Verify that FortiGate device DHCP server is assigning an IP to the FortiSwitch.
  4. Ensure the FortiSwitch has internet access.

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

In FortiLink topologies, a managed FortiSwitch normally gets itsmanagement IP automaticallyfrom theDHCP server on the FortiLink interface. If the switch does not receive an IP:

It cannot form the FortiLink CAPWAP/DTLS control channel.

Therefore it doesnot appearunderWiFi & Switch Controller > FortiSwitch.

FortiOS documentation states that FortiLink uses abuilt-in DHCP serveron the FortiLink interface for onboarding switches.

So thefirst troubleshooting stepis to confirm:

The FortiLink DHCP server is enabled.

Leases are being handed out to the FortiSwitch MAC.

Other options:

A: Security policies do not affect the L2 FortiLink control channel.

B: Static IP may be used but is not the normal first step.

D: Internet access is not required for FortiGate to see the switch.



You are configuring FortiAuthenticator to integrate with FSSO for user identification. To enable FortiAuthenticator to extract user information from syslog messages and inject it into FSSO, you have configured syslog matching rules.

What is the role of syslog matching rules in the process of injecting user information into FSSO?

  1. To automatically update user group memberships in FSSO based on syslog events
  2. To enforce user authentication policies based on syslog message contents
  3. To define how syslog messages are parsed and extract user information, such as usernames and IP addresses
  4. To filter and block irrelevant syslog messages from being processed by the FortiAuthenticator

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

When FortiAuthenticator is used as anFSSO agentbased onsyslog, it must:

Parse incoming syslog messagesfrom devices (firewalls, WLAN controllers, VPN concentrators, etc.).

Extract identity fieldssuch as:

Username

IP address

Login/logout event indicators

Syslogmatching ruleson FortiAuthenticator define:

Which syslog messages are relevant (by facility, message pattern, or regex).

How to capture specific fields (username, IP, group, event type).

FortiAuthenticator then uses this parsed data toinject logon sessions into FSSO, so FortiGate can apply identity-based policies.

Thus, the role of syslog matching rules is exactly as described inC.

A: Group mapping is handled separately via directory groups / FSSO config, not directly by matching rules.

B: Enforcement of authentication policies is done on FortiGate, not directly by the matching rules.

D: While irrelevant logs can be ignored via rules, the primary purpose isparsing and extraction, not generic filtering.



Share your comments for Fortinet FCSS_LED_AR-7.6 exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

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