EXIN Certified Data Centre Professional CDCP Dumps in PDF

Free EXIN CDCP Real Questions (page: 2)

Which one of the following is a factor that can affect Availability and Reliability?

  1. Inadequate Cooling
  2. Employee Salaries
  3. Radio Active Waves
  4. Attenuation

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Availability and reliability are two important aspects of data centre performance that measure how often the system is operational and how dependable it is. According to the EPI Data Centre

Framework, availability is the percentage of time that a system or component is in an operable state, while reliability is the probability that a system or component will perform its required function under given conditions for a specified period of time. Both availability and reliability can be affected by various factors, such as design, maintenance, human error, power supply, security, etc. One of the factors that can have a significant impact on both availability and reliability is cooling. Cooling is essential for maintaining the optimal temperature and humidity levels for the IT equipment and preventing overheating, which can cause failures, downtime, and reduced lifespan. Inadequate cooling can result from insufficient capacity, poor airflow management, faulty components, or environmental conditions. Inadequate cooling can reduce the availability and reliability of the data centre by increasing the risk of thermal stress, hot spots, performance degradation, and equipment damage. Therefore, cooling is a critical factor that can affect availability and reliability in a data centre.


Reference:

· EPI Data Centre Framework1
· EPI Data Centre Training Framework2
· EPI Data Centre Competence Framework3
· Data Center Availability, Reliability Hinge On Numerous Factors4 · A Look at Data Center Reliability and Availability5



Which type of Fire Detection Device is recommended for protecting a Data Center?

  1. Heat detector
  2. Smoke detector
  3. Flame detector
  4. None of the above

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

According to the CDCP® Preparation Guide, smoke detectors are the most common type of fire detection devices used in data centers, as they can detect a fire in its early stages and provide early warning to the occupants and authorities. Smoke detectors can be either spot-type or air-aspirating, depending on the design and goals of the data center. Spot-type detectors are inexpensive and simple, but may cause activation delay and false alarms. Air-aspirating detectors are more sensitive and reliable, but may require more maintenance and installation costs. Both types of detectors should be installed in accordance with the relevant standards and codes, such as NFPA 72 and EN 54.


Reference:

CDCP® Preparation Guide, page 30-31. Evaluating Fire Detection Options For Data Centers. Fire Detection and Suppression Systems in a Data Center.



The expected time to Recover/Repair from a system from a failure is defined as .

  1. MTBF
  2. MCBF
  3. MLBF
  4. MTTR

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The expected time to recover or repair from a system from a failure is defined as MTTR (mean time to recovery or mean time to repair). MTTR is the average time it takes to restore a system or product to its normal operation after a failure. MTTR includes the time spent on detecting, diagnosing, and fixing the problem. MTTR is an important metric for measuring the reliability and availability of a system or product, as well as the efficiency and effectiveness of the incident management process. A lower MTTR indicates a faster and more reliable recovery or repair process.


Reference:

· EPI Data Centre Professional (CDCP®) Preparation Guide, page 17 · What is MTTR? | IBM
· Explained: All Meanings of MTTR and Other Incident Metrics



Which type of Humidifier suspends quartz lamps over an open pool of water?

  1. Infrared Humidifiers
  2. Water Canister Humidifier
  3. Steam Canister Humidifier
  4. Ultrasonic Humidifier

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Infrared humidifiers are a type of humidifier that use quartz lamps to heat water in an open pool and evaporate it into the air. They are energy-intensive and require frequent maintenance and cleaning. They are not recommended for data centers, as they can introduce contaminants and bacteria into the air, and increase the risk of fire and electrical hazards.


Reference:

EPI Data Centre Training Framework, CDCP Preparation Guide, Make Humidification Adjustments | ENERGY STAR



Which one of the following is a core objective of a Business Value in an organization?

  1. Reducing Costs
  2. Reducing the Deficit
  3. Increasing Sales
  4. None of the above

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

According to the EPI Data Centre Professional (CDCP®) Reference Materials, a core objective of a Business Value in an organization is to create value for customers and stakeholders1. This means delivering products or services that meet or exceed customer expectations, while also generating profits or benefits for the organization and its shareholders. Reducing costs, reducing the deficit, and increasing sales are possible ways to achieve this objective, but they are not the core objective itself.


Reference:

1: EPI Data Centre Professional (CDCP®) Reference Materials, page 9.



Share your comments for EXIN CDCP exam with other users:

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

V
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3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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J
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1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

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A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

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J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

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S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

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P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
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10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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T
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10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

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K
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9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

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E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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A
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