EC-Council Certified Network Defender 312-38 Dumps in PDF

Free EC-Council 312-38 Real Questions (page: 11)

FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. The primary goal of _____________risk analysis is to determine the proportion of effect and theoretical response.

  1. qualitative

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Qualitative risk analysis uses the likelihood and impact of the identified risks in a fast and cost-effective manner. Qualitative risk analysis establishes a basis for a focused quantitative analysis or risk response plan by evaluating the precedence of risks with a view to impact on the project's scope, cost, schedule, and quality objectives. Qualitative risk analysis is conducted at any point in a project life cycle. The primary goal of qualitative risk analysis is to determine the proportion of effect and theoretical response. The inputs to the qualitative risk
analysis process are as follows:

Organizational process assets Project scope statement
Risk management plan Risk register



Which of the following topologies is a type of physical network design where each computer in the network is connected to a central device through an unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) wire?

  1. Mesh topology
  2. Star topology
  3. Ring topology
  4. Bus topology

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Star topology is a type of physical network design where each computer in the network is connected to a central device, called hub, through an unshielded twisted-pair (UTP) wire. Signals from the sending computer go to the hub and are then transmitted to all the computers in the network. Since each workstation has a separate connection to the hub, it is easy to troubleshoot. Currently, it is the most popular topology used for networks.
Star Topology:

Answer option A is incorrect. Mesh network topology is a type of physical network design where all devices in a network are connected to each other with many redundant connections. It provides multiple paths for the data traveling on the network to reach its destination. Mesh topology also provides redundancy in the network. It employs the full mesh and partial mesh methods to connect devices. In a full mesh topology network, each computer is connected to all the other computers. In a partial mesh topology network, some of the computers are connected to all the computers, whereas some are connected to only those computers with which they frequently exchange data.
Mesh Topology:


Answer option D is incorrect. Bus topology is a type of physical network design where all computers in the network are connected through a single coaxial cable known as bus. This topology uses minimum cabling and is therefore, the simplest and least expensive topology for small networks. In this topology, 50 ohm terminators terminate both ends of the network. A Bus topology network is difficult to troubleshoot, as a break or problem at any point along the cable can cause the entire network to go down.
Bus Topology:


Answer option C is incorrect. Ring topology is a type of physical network design where all computers in the network are connected in a closed loop. Each computer or device in a Ring topology network acts as a repeater. It transmits data by passing a token around the network in order to prevent the collision of data between two computers that want to send messages at the same time. If a token is free, the computer waiting to send data takes it, attaches the data and destination address to the token, and sends it. When the token reaches its destination computer, the data is copied. Then, the token gets back to the originator. The originator finds that the message has been copied and received and removes the message from the token. Now, the token is free and can be used by the other computers in the network to send data. In this topology, if one computer fails, the entire network goes down.
Ring Topology:



FILL BLANK
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. A________________ is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer cryptography.

  1. signature

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A digital signature is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using computer cryptography. A digital signature not only validates the sender's identity, but also ensures that the document's contents have not been altered. It verifies that the source and integrity of the document is not compromised since the document is signed. A digital signature provides the following assurances: Authenticity, Integrity, and Non-repudiation.
Microsoft Office 2007 Excel and Word provide a feature known as Signature line to insert a user's digital signature on a document.



Which of the following is an intrusion detection system that reads all incoming packets and tries to find suspicious patterns known as signatures or rules?

  1. HIDS
  2. IPS
  3. DMZ
  4. NIDS

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

A network intrusion detection system (NIDS) is an intrusion detection system that tries to detect malicious activity such as denial of service attacks, port scans or even attempts to crack into computers by monitoring network traffic. A NIDS reads all the incoming packets and tries to find suspicious patterns known as signatures or rules. It also tries to detect incoming shell codes in the same manner that an ordinary intrusion detection system does.
Answer option A is incorrect. A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) produces a false alarm because of the abnormal behavior of users and the network. A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is an intrusion detection system that monitors and analyses the internals of a computing system rather than the network packets on its external interfaces. A host-based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) monitors all or parts of the dynamic behavior and the state of a computer system. HIDS looks at the state of a system, its stored information, whether in RAM, in the file system, log files or elsewhere; and checks that the contents of these appear as expected. Answer option B is incorrect. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a network security device that monitors network and/or system activities for malicious or unwanted behavior and can react, in real-time, to block or prevent those activities. When an attack is detected, it can drop the offending packets while still allowing all other traffic to pass.
Answer option C is incorrect. A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes external services of an organization to a larger network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization's Local Area Network (LAN); an external attacker only has access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than the whole of the network. Hosts in the DMZ have limited connectivity to specific hosts in the internal network, though communication with other hosts in the DMZ and to the external network is allowed. This allows hosts in the DMZ to provide services to both the internal and external networks, while an intervening firewall controls the traffic between the DMZ servers and the internal network clients. In a DMZ configuration, most computers on the LAN run behind a firewall connected to a public network such as the Internet.



Fill in the blank with the appropriate term. The _____________is typically considered as the top InfoSec officer in the organization and helps in maintaining current and appropriate body of knowledge required to perform InfoSec management functions.

  1. CISO

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The Chief InfoSec Officer (CISO) is typically considered as the top InfoSec officer in the organization, though the CISO is usually not an executive-level position and commonly reports to the CIO. Following are the job competencies for the Chief InfoSec Officer (CISO):
Maintaining current & appropriate body of knowledge required to perform InfoSec management functionsEffectively applying InfoSec management knowledge for improving security of open network and associated systems and services Maintaining working knowledge of external legislative & regulatory initiativesInterpreting and translating requirements for implementationDeveloping appropriate InfoSec policies, standards, guidelines, and proceduresProviding meaningful input, preparing effective presentations, and communicating InfoSec objectivesParticipating in short and long term planning



Share your comments for EC-Council 312-38 exam with other users:

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

Today I wrote this exam and passed, i totally relay on this practice exam. The questions were very tough, these questions are valid and I encounter the same.

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

Anyone used this dump recently?

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

nice questions

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

i need to pass exam for VMware 2V0-11.25

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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