Cyber AB Certified CMMC Professional (CCP) CMMC-CCP Dumps in PDF

Free Cyber AB CMMC-CCP Real Questions (page: 14)

SC.L2-3 13.14: Control and monitor the use of VoIP technologies is marked as NOT APPLICABLE for an OSC's assessment. How does this affect the assessment scope?

  1. Any existing telephone system is in scope even if it is not using VoIP technology.
  2. An error has been made and the Lead Assessor should be contacted to correct the error.
  3. VoIP technology is within scope, and it uses FlPS-validated encryption, so it does not need to be assessed.
  4. VoIP technology is not used within scope boundary, so no assessment procedures are specified for this practice.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Understanding SC.L2-3.13.14 ­ Control and Monitor the Use of VoIP Technologies

TheCMMC 2.0 Level 2requirementSC.L2-3.13.14comes fromNIST SP 800-171, Security Requirement 3.13.14, which mandates that organizations mustcontrol and monitor the use of VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) technologiesif used within their system boundary.

If a systemdoes not use VoIP technology, then this control isNot Applicable (N/A)because there is nothing to assess.

Why Option D is Correct

When a requirement is marked as Not Applicable (N/A), it means the OSC does not use the technology or process covered by that controlwithin its assessment boundary.

No assessment procedures are neededsince there is no VoIP system to evaluate.

Option A (Existing telephone system in scope)is incorrect becausetraditional (non-VoIP) telephone systems are not covered by SC.L2-3.13.14--only VoIP is within scope.

Option B (Error, contact the Lead Assessor)is incorrect because markingSC.L2-3.13.14 as N/A is valid if VoIP is not used. This is not an error.

Option C (VoIP in scope but using FIPS-validated encryption, so it doesn't need to be assessed)is incorrect becauseeven if VoIP uses FIPS-validated encryption, the control would still need to be assessed to ensure monitoring and usage control are in place.

Official CMMC Documentation Reference

CMMC 2.0 Level 2 Assessment Guide ­ SC.L2-3.13.14

NIST SP 800-171, Security Requirement 3.13.14

CMMC Scoping Guidance ­ Determining Not Applicable (N/A) Practices

Final Verification

IfVoIP is not used within the OSC's system boundary, the control does not require assessment, making Option D the correct answer.



A test or demonstration is being performed for the Assessment Team during an assessment.
Which environment MUST the OSC perform this test or demonstration?

  1. Client
  2. Production
  3. Development
  4. Demonstration

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Understanding the Assessment Environment Requirement

During aCMMC Level 2 assessment, assessors requireobjective evidencethat security controls are implementedin the actual operating environmentwhereControlled Unclassified Information (CUI)is handled.

This means thattests or demonstrations must be conducted in the production environment, where the organization's real systems and security controls are in use.

Why Option B (Production) is Correct

Assessment teams need to validate security controls in the actual environment where they are applied, ensuring that security measures are in effect in thereal-world operating conditions.

Option A (Client)is incorrect because "Client" is not a defined assessment environment.

Option C (Development)is incorrect because testing in a development environmentdoes not accurately represent the production security posture.

Option D (Demonstration)is incorrect becausedemonstrations in a separate test environment do not provide valid evidence for CMMC assessments--actual security implementations must be verified in production.

Official CMMC Documentation Reference

CMMC Assessment Process (CAP) Guide ­ Section 3.5 (Assessment Methods)

NIST SP 800-171 Assessment Procedures(Verification must occur in the actual system where CUI resides.)

Final Verification

SinceCMMC assessments require security controls to be validated in the actual production environment, the correct answer isOption B: Production.



Which domain references the requirements needed to handle physical or digital assets containing CUI?

  1. Media Protection (MP)
  2. Physical Protection (PE)
  3. System and Information Integrity (SI)
  4. System and Communications Protection (SC)

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Understanding the Media Protection (MP) Domain

TheMedia Protection (MP) domaininCMMC 2.0focuses on the security requirements needed to handlephysical or digital mediacontainingControlled Unclassified Information (CUI).

This domain includes controls for:

Protecting digital and physical mediathat store CUI.

Sanitizing and destroying mediabefore disposal or reuse.

Restricting access to CUI mediato authorized personnel only.

Why the Correct Answer is "A. Media Protection (MP)"?

TheMP domaindirectly addresses the requirements for handlingCUI media, includingencryption, access control, storage, and disposal.

CMMC 2.0Level 2aligns withNIST SP 800-171, which includesMP controlsfor managing media containing CUI.

Why Not the Other Options?

B . Physical Protection (PE)Incorrect

PEfocuses onphysical security(e.g., facility access, visitor logs, physical barriers),not the handling of CUI on media.

C . System and Information Integrity (SI)Incorrect

SIdeals withsystem monitoring, vulnerability management, and incident response, not media protection.

D . System and Communications Protection (SC)Incorrect

SCcoversnetwork security, encryption, and secure communications, but does not specifically focus on media handling.

Relevant CMMC 2.0


Reference:

CMMC Level 2 Practice MP.3.125­ Protects CUI by ensuring proper handling ofmedia containing CUI.

NIST SP 800-171 (MP Family)­ Establishes security requirements for handlingdigital and physical mediacontaining CUI.

CMMC Scoping Guide (Nov 2021)­ ConfirmsMP controls apply to all media that store, process, or transmit CUI.

Final Justification:

SinceMedia Protection (MP) directly addresses the handling of assets containing CUI, the correct answer isA. Media Protection (MP).



When scoping the organizational system, the scope of applicability for the cybersecurity CUI practices applies to the components of:

  1. federal systems that process, store, or transmit CUI.
  2. nonfederal systems that process, store, or transmit CUI.
  3. federal systems that process, store, or transmit CUI. or that provide protection for the system components.
  4. nonfederal systems that process, store, or transmit CUI. or that provide protection for the system components.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Understanding Scoping in CMMC 2.0

TheCMMC 2.0 framework applies to nonfederal systemsthat process, store, or transmitCUI.

Scoping determineswhich system components must comply with CMMC practices.

If a systemprocesses, stores, or transmits CUI, orprovides security for those systems, itmust be included in the assessment scope.

Why the Correct Answer is "D. Nonfederal systems that process, store, or transmit CUI, or that provide protection for the system components"?

CMMC Applies to Contractors, Not Federal Systems

CMMC isdesigned for Department of Defense (DoD) contractors, notfederal systems.

Federal systems arealready governed by NIST SP 800-53and other regulations.

Scope Includes Systems That Process CUI AND Those That Protect Them

Systemsprocessing, storing, or transmitting CUIare in scope.

Systems thatprovide protection for CUI systems(e.g., firewalls, monitoring tools, security appliances) arealso in scope.

Why Not the Other Options?

A . Federal systems that process, store, or transmit CUI.Incorrect

CMMCdoes not apply to federal systems.

B . Nonfederal systems that process, store, or transmit CUI.Partially correct but incomplete

Itexcludes security systemsthat protect CUI assets, whichare also in scope.

C . Federal systems that process, store, or transmit CUI, or that provide protection for the system components.Incorrect

CMMConly applies to nonfederal systems.

Relevant CMMC 2.0


Reference:

CMMC Scoping Guide (Nov 2021)­ Confirms that CMMCapplies to nonfederal systemsprocessingCUI.

NIST SP 800-171 Rev. 2­ Specifies security requirements fornonfederal systemshandling CUI.

DFARS 252.204-7012­ Requires DoD contractors to implementNIST SP 800-171onnonfederal systemshandling CUI.

Final Justification:

SinceCMMC applies to nonfederal systems that process CUI or protect those systems, the correct answer isD. Nonfederal systems that process, store, or transmit CUI, or that provide protection for the system components.



An employee is the primary system administrator for an OSC. The employee will be a core part of the assessment, as they perform most of the duties in managing and maintaining the systems.
What would the employee be BEST categorized as?

  1. Analyzer
  2. Inspector
  3. Applicable staff
  4. Demonstration staff

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

In the context of a Cybersecurity Maturity Model Certification (CMMC) assessment, the roles and responsibilities of individuals involved are clearly delineated to ensure a structured and effective evaluation process. The term "applicable staff" refers to personnel within the Organization Seeking Certification (OSC) who possess specific knowledge or expertise pertinent to the assessment. These individuals are integral to the assessment process as they provide essential information, demonstrate the implementation of security practices, and facilitate the assessment team's understanding of the organization's cybersecurity posture.

In this scenario, the employee serving as the primary system administrator is responsible for managing and maintaining the organization's systems. Given their comprehensive understanding of the system configurations, security controls, and operational procedures, this individual is best categorized as "applicable staff." Their involvement is crucial during the assessment, as they can provide detailed insights, demonstrate compliance measures, and address technical inquiries from the assessment team.

The other options can be delineated as follows:

Analyzer:Typically refers to individuals who analyze data or security incidents, often as part of a security operations center. This role is not specifically defined within the CMMC assessment context.

Inspector:Generally denotes a person who examines or inspects systems and processes, possibly as part of an internal audit or compliance check. This term is not a standard designation within the CMMC assessment framework.

Demonstration staff:While this could imply personnel responsible for demonstrating systems or processes, it is not a recognized role within the CMMC assessment process.

Therefore, the primary system administrator, by virtue of their role and responsibilities, aligns with the "applicable staff" category, playing a pivotal role in facilitating a successful CMMC assessment.



Which resource contains authoritative data classifications of CUI?

  1. NARA
  2. CMMC-AB
  3. DoD Contractors FAQ
  4. OSC's privacy policies

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) serves as the authoritative body overseeing the Controlled Unclassified Information (CUI) program within the United States federal government. NARA maintains the CUI Registry, which is the definitive resource for all categories, subcategories, and associated markings of CUI. This registry provides comprehensive guidance on the identification and handling of CUI, ensuring standardized practices across federal agencies and their contractors.

The other options are delineated as follows:

CMMC-AB:The Cybersecurity Maturity Model Certification Accreditation Body is responsible for overseeing the CMMC program but does not manage CUI classifications.

DoD Contractors FAQ:While it may offer guidance to Department of Defense contractors, it is not an authoritative source for CUI data classifications.

OSC's privacy policies:An Organization Seeking Certification's internal policies pertain to its own data handling practices and are not authoritative for CUI classifications.

Therefore, for authoritative information on CUI data classifications, the NARA's CUI Registry is the appropriate resource.



A C3PAO is near completion of a Level 2 Assessment for an OSC. The CMMC Findings Brief and CMMC Assessment Results documents have been developed. The Final Recommended Assessment Results are being generated.
When generating these results, what MUST be included?

  1. An updated Assessment Plan
  2. Recorded and final updated Daily Checkpoint
  3. Fully executed CMMC Assessment contract between the C3PAO and the OSC
  4. Review documentation for the CMMC Quality Assurance Professional (CQAP)

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

According to the CMMC Assessment Process (CAP), specifically within the Phase 4: Reporting Results requirements, a C3PAO must ensure that every assessment package undergoes a rigorous quality review before it is finalized and submitted to the Department of Defense (DoD).

The Role of the CQAP: The CMMC Quality Assurance Professional (CQAP) is a designated role within a C3PAO responsible for verifying that the assessment was conducted in accordance with the CAP and that the evidence collected (the "Artifacts") supports the findings (Met/Not Met).

Mandatory Inclusion: When generating the Final Recommended Assessment Results, the package is not considered complete or valid without the formal review documentation from the CQAP. This documentation serves as the "stamp of approval" that the internal Quality Management System (QMS) of the C3PAO has validated the assessment team's work.

Why other options are incorrect:

Option A: While the Assessment Plan is a required document during the planning phase, it is an input to the process, not a mandatory component of theFinal Resultsgeneration in the same way quality validation is.

Option B: Daily Checkpoints are administrative tools used during the "Conduct Assessment" phase to keep the OSC informed.
While they are part of the assessment record, they are not a mandatory technical component of the final results package.

Option C: The contract is a legal/business requirement handled during the "Plan and Prepare" phase; it is not included in the technical assessment results uploaded to the DoD.

Reference Documents:

CMMC Assessment Process (CAP) v1.0: Section 4.2 (Finalize Assessment Report) and Section 4.3 (C3PAO Quality Review).

C3PAO Authorization Requirements: Specifies the requirement for a Quality Assurance (QA) function to review all assessment outputs to ensure consistency and integrity across the ecosystem.



A company is about to conduct a press release. According to AC.L1-3.1.22: Control information posted or processed on publicly accessible systems, what is the MOST important factor to consider when addressing CMMC requirements?

  1. That the information is correct
  2. That the CEO approved the message
  3. That the company has to safeguard the release of FCI
  4. That so long as the information is only FCI, it can be released

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Step 1: Understanding AC.L1-3.1.22

AC.L1-3.1.22states:"Control information posted or processed on publicly accessible systems."

This control requires organizations toensure that FCI (Federal Contract Information) is not publicly postedor made accessible in an uncontrolled manner.

FCI must beprotected from unauthorized disclosure, even if it is not classified or CUI.


Reference:

NIST SP 800-171, Requirement 3.1.22

CMMC Level 1 Practice AC.L1-3.1.22

Step 2: Why Safeguarding FCI is Critical in a Press Release

If the company releases apress statementthat includesFCI, it must ensure that the information is not inadvertently exposing sensitive contract-related data.

FCI includesinformation provided by or generated for theDoD under a contractthat isnot intended for public release.

Organizations mustimplement controlsto prevent unintentional exposure.

Step 3: Why Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect

A . That the information is correct (Incorrect):

While accuracy is important,CMMC requirements focus on protecting sensitive information, not just ensuring correctness.

B . That the CEO approved the message (Incorrect):

CEO approval does not satisfy CMMC compliance, as it does not address safeguarding FCI.

D . That so long as the information is only FCI, it can be released (Incorrect):

FCI must be protected and cannot be publicly disclosed unless specifically authorizedby the DoD.

Final Confirmation of correct answers:

The company must safeguard FCI and ensure that no unauthorized disclosures occur in a public press release.

Thus, the correct answer is: C . That the company has to safeguard the release of FCI



Share your comments for Cyber AB CMMC-CCP exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/14/2026 11:42:28 AM

Question 12:
Here’s how to understand question 12.

  • What the question asks: Two valid ways to prepare and deploy a software deployable package to a test environment (via the asset library in LCS).

  • The correct options: C and D.

- C: In Azure DevOps, queue a build from the corresponding branch to produce a deployable package, then upload that package to the LCS asset library. This uses a release/build workflow and requires an LCS connection set up in Azure DevOps.
- D: In Visual Studio, create a Dynamics 365 deployment package using the dev tools, then upload that deployable package to the LCS asset library. This is the Visual Studio–based path to generate and publish a deployable package.
  • Why A and B are not correct:

- A: Exporting the project from Visual Studio and uploading the project itself to the asset library isn’t the correct artifact; the asset library expects a deployable package, not a raw project export.
- B: Queuing a build and “uploading the model” to the asset library isn’t the standard deployable package workflow; the target artifact should be a deployable package, not a model file.
Key concept: Deployable packages are published to the LCS Asset Library, and you can create them either from Visual Studio or from Azure DevOps as part of a build/release pipeline.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:23:34 PM

Question 6:
Here’s how question 6 works.
Key constraint: All new and extended objects must be in an existing model named FinanceExt. Creating a brand-new model is not allowed.
Why the two correct options work:

  • B. Overlay the existing FinanceExt model and populate the solution definition.
- This keeps all changes inside FinanceExt by overlaying the base model with your solution details.
  • C. Extend the existing FinanceExt model and populate the project model definition.
- This uses the extension approach to add your changes while still residing in FinanceExt, organized via the project model definition.
Why the other options are not correct:
  • A. Create a new model that extends the existing FinanceExt model.
- Not allowed, since no new models may be created.
  • D. Modify DefaultModelForNewProject and name the model FinanceExt.
- The goal is to place changes in FinanceExt, not to name or create a new model via config; this doesn’t describe a valid way to satisfy the constraint.
In short: use B or C; both keep changes inside the existing FinanceExt model.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/13/2026 11:00:29 PM

Question 2:
I don’t have the text for Question 2 here. Please paste the exact Question 2 (including all answer choices) or describe the topic it covers.
Once I have it, I’ll:

  • Identify the exam objective it targets.
  • Break down the stem and each option.
  • Use elimination and key concepts to justify why options are correct or incorrect.
  • Give the final answer with a concise explanation of the reasoning.

If there’s an image in Question 2, describe it or transcribe any text shown.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/10/2026 12:51:57 AM

Which statement is true about using default environment variables? The environment variables can be read in workflows using the ENV: variable_name syntax. The environment variables created should be prefixed with GITHUB_ to ensure they can be accessed in workflows The environment variables can be set in the defaults: sections of the workflow The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner.
Correct answer: The statement "The GITHUB_WORKSPACE environment variable should be used to access files from within the runner." is true.
Why the others are false:

  • ENV: variable_name syntax is not how you read env vars in workflows. Use ${{ env.VARIABLE }} in expressions or $VARIABLE in a shell.
  • Environment variables don’t need a GITHUB_ prefix. Custom vars can have any name; GITHUB_ is only for built-in, predefined vars.
  • defaults: cannot set environment variables. It configures defaults for run steps (like shell or working-directory), not env vars.

Extra tip:
  • GITHUB_WORKSPACE (or ${{ github.workspace }}) is the root path on the runner where the repository is checked out. Use it to access files, e.g., $GITHUB_WORKSPACE/... or ${{ github.workspace }}/....

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: Edate = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

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