Cyber AB Certified CMMC Assessor (CCA) CMMC-CCA Dumps in PDF

Free Cyber AB CMMC-CCA Real Questions (page: 21)

You are assessing an OSC that utilizes containerization technology for deploying microservices within a Kubernetes cluster. These microservices leverage various JavaScript frameworks for functionality.
While a mobile device management (MDM) solution secures company phones, access to these microservices is primarily through web interfaces. From a mobile code control perspective, what is the primary concern in this scenario?

  1. The lack of mobile device management (MDM) for access through web interfaces
  2. Containerization technology itself might introduce security vulnerabilities
  3. The use of JavaScript in containerized microservices
  4. The potential execution of unauthorized mobile code through web interfaces

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth
SC.L2-3.13.13 ­ Mobile Code requires "controlling and monitoring mobile code use to prevent unacceptable risk." Mobile code (e.g., scripts executed in browsers) is a concern via web interfaces accessing microservices. Unauthorized code execution (D) is the primary risk, as it could exploit users or systems. MDM (A) secures devices, not web code; container vulnerabilities (B) are separate; and JavaScript use (C) isn't inherently mobile code unless executed client-side without control. The CMMC guide focuses on execution risks.
Extract from Official CMMC Documentation:
CMMC Assessment Guide Level 2 (v2.0), SC.L2-3.13.13: "Control mobile code to prevent unauthorized execution via web interfaces."
NIST SP 800-171A, 3.13.13: "Assess risks of mobile code in user-accessible systems."


Reference:

https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/CMMC/AG_Level2_MasterV2.0_FINAL_202112016_508.pdf



You are assessing Conedge Ltd, a contractor that develops cryptographic algorithms for classified government networks. In reviewing their network architecture documents, you see they have implemented role-based access controls on their workstations using Active Directory group policies. Software developers are assigned to the "Dev_Roles" group which grants access to compile and test code modules. The "Admin_Roles" group with elevated privileges for system administration activities is restricted to the IT staff. However, when you examine the event logs on a developer workstation, you find evidence that a developer was able to enable debugging permissions to access protected kernel memory ­ a privileged function.
Which of the following controls could have prevented the developer from executing this privileged function?

  1. Removing internet access
  2. Prohibiting inheritance of privileged permissions
  3. Enforcing dual authorization
  4. Implementing time of day restrictions

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth

AC.L2-3.1.7 ­ Privileged Functions requires "preventing non-privileged users from executing privileged functions." The developer's access to kernel memory suggests inherited or misconfiguredpermissions from the Admin_Roles group. Prohibiting inheritance (B) ensures Dev_Roles don't gain elevated privileges, enforcing least privilege. Internet removal (A), dual authorization (C), and time restrictions (D) don't directly address role-based privilege creep, per the CMMC guide's focus on RBAC configuration.
Extract from Official CMMC Documentation:
CMMC Assessment Guide Level 2 (v2.0), AC.L2-3.1.7: "Prevent privilege inheritance in role-based access controls to limit non-privileged users."
NIST SP 800-171A, 3.1.7: "Examine RBAC settings to ensure no unintended privilege escalation."


Reference:

https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/CMMC/AG_Level2_MasterV2.0_FINAL_202112016_508.pdf



You have been hired to assess an OSC's implementation of secure password storage and transmission mechanisms. The OSC uses a popular identity and access management (IAM) solution from a reputable vendor to manage user authentication across their systems. During the assessment, you examine the IAM solution's configuration and documentation, which indicate that passwords are hashed using industry-standard algorithms like SHA-256 or bcrypt before being stored in the system's database. Additionally, the IAM solution leverages TLS encryption for all communications, ensuring that passwords are transmitted securely over the network. Based on the information provided, how would you assess the OSC's compliance with CMMC practice IA.L2-3.5.10 ­ Cryptographically- Protected Passwords, which requires organizations to store and transmit only cryptographically protected passwords?

  1. Not Met (-5 points)
  2. Met (+5 points)
  3. Met (+1 point)
  4. Not Met (-1 point)

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth
IA.L2-3.5.10 mandates that passwords be "cryptographically protected in storage and transit." Hashing with SHA-256 or bcrypt (one-way functions) secures storage, and TLS encryption protects transmission--both meeting the practice's objectives. Per the DoD Scoring Methodology, IA.L2- 3.5.10 is a 5-point practice, scoring +5 when fully met. The OSC's implementation aligns with industry standards and CMMC requirements, warranting a "Met (+5 points)" score. Partial compliance isn't an option here, as both storage and transit are addressed.
Extract from Official CMMC Documentation:
CMMC Assessment Guide Level 2 (v2.0), IA.L2-3.5.10: "Passwords must be hashed (e.g., bcrypt) for storage and encrypted (e.g., TLS) in transit."
DoD Scoring Methodology: "5-point practice: Met = +5, Not Met = -5."


Reference:

https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/CMMC/AG_Level2_MasterV2.0_FINAL_202112016_508.pdf



Upon examining a contractor's security and awareness training policy for compliance with AT.L2-3.2.2 ­ Role-Based Training, you determine that they offer their employees training on handling CUI securely. However, system auditors, system administrators, penetration testers, and other cybersecurity roles are all provided biannual training on CUI handling and cybersecurity best practices. How would you assess the contractor's implementation of CMMC practice AT.L2-3.2.2 ­ Role-Based Training?

  1. Not Met
  2. Partially Met
  3. Not Applicable
  4. Met

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth
AT.L2-3.2.2 requires "role-based training for personnel with assigned security roles before authorizing system access." Generic biannual training on CUI and best practices doesn't meet the practice's requirement for tailored, role-specific training (e.g., auditors need audit-specific training, not just CUI handling). The lack of specialization fails the intent, scoring Not Met (-1 point per DoD methodology for this 1-point practice). Partial compliance (B) isn't an option under CMMC scoring.
Extract from Official CMMC Documentation:
CMMC Assessment Guide Level 2 (v2.0), AT.L2-3.2.2: "Training must be specific to security roles." DoD Scoring Methodology: "1-point practice: Met = +1, Not Met = -1."


Reference:

https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/CMMC/AG_Level2_MasterV2.0_FINAL_202112016_508.pdf



Examining an OSC password policy, you learn that a password should have a minimum of 15 characters. It also should have 3 uppercase, 2 special characters, and other alphanumeric characters. Passwords have to be changed every 45 days and cannot be easily tied to the account owner. Passwords cannot be reused until 30 cycles are complete. The OSC's systems send a temporary password to the user's email or authentication app, which is one of the events described in their password usage policy. However, a recent penetration test report shows that the generated temporary passwords did not have sufficient entropy, and an attacker may guess a temporary password through brute force attacks.
Which CMMC practice has the contractor successfully implemented? Select all that apply.

  1. IL2-3.5.9 ­ Temporary Passwords
  2. IA.L2-3.5.7 ­ Password Complexity and IA.L2-3.5.8 ­ Password Reuse
  3. IA.L2-3.5.3 ­ Multifactor Authentication
  4. IA.L2-3.5.6 ­ Identifier Handling

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth

IA.L2-3.5.7: Requires "enforcing minimum password complexity." The policy's 15-character minimum with specific requirements meets this.
IA.L2-3.5.8: Requires "prohibiting password reuse for a specified number of generations." The 30- cycle rule satisfies this.
IA.L2-3.5.9: Requires "changing temporary passwords at first logon and ensuring sufficient entropy." Low entropy fails this practice.
IA.L2-3.5.3: No evidence of MFA implementation.
IA.L2-3.5.6: Identifier handling isn't addressed.Thus, only B applies fully.
Extract from Official CMMC Documentation:
CMMC Assessment Guide Level 2 (v2.0), IA.L2-3.5.7: "Define complexity rules." IA.L2-3.5.8: "Prohibit reuse for specified cycles."
IA.L2-3.5.9: "Ensure temporary password entropy."


Reference:

https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/CMMC/AG_Level2_MasterV2.0_FINAL_202112016_508.pdf



When assessing a contractor's implementation of CMMC requirements, you realize they have multiple data centers and regional offices, each having its access control mechanisms and security perimeter. The contractor uses a remote access solution to allow external partners and employees to collaborate on projects that involve CUI. The solution requires routing configuration to ensure the remote access to CUI is not compromised.
Why should all traffic be routed through a managed Access Control point?

  1. It simplifies network architecture and reduces complexity
  2. Reduces the susceptibility to unauthorized access to organizational systems
  3. It enables easier troubleshooting and monitoring of network traffic
  4. It provides better performance and lower latency for remote users

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth
AC.L2-3.1.14 ­ Remote Access Routing requires "routing remote access through managed access control points." This reduces unauthorized access risk (B) by centralizing control and security, per CMMC intent. Simplification (A), troubleshooting (C), and performance (D) are secondary benefits, not the primary purpose.

Extract from Official CMMC Documentation:
CMMC Assessment Guide Level 2 (v2.0), AC.L2-3.1.14: "Route traffic to reduce unauthorized access risk."
NIST SP 800-171A, 3.1.14: "Examine routing to enhance security."


Reference:

https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/CMMC/AG_Level2_MasterV2.0_FINAL_202112016_508.pdf



You are performing an on-site assessment for a defense contractor that develops and manufactures embedded control systems for military drones. During your documentation review, you discover they have a System Security Plan (SSP) outlining a configuration management process. The SSP mentions the creation of baseline configurations for their drone control systems, but details are limited. You interview the IT manager responsible for configuration management. They explain they use a commercial configuration management tool to capture hardware and software configurations for the drone systems. They confirm that the baseline configurations include initial software versions but do not track firmware or network configurations. Additionally, while they update software versions through the tool, they do not have a documented process for reviewing and updating baseline configurations in response to security vulnerabilities or system modifications.
Which of the following actions would be the MOST appropriate recommendation for the contractor to improve their compliance with CM.L2-3.4.1 ­ System Baselining?

  1. Developing and documenting a process for reviewing baseline configurations periodically and updating them to reflect changes in firmware versions, network topology, and security risks
  2. Instruct IT personnel to update baseline configurations whenever a new software version is deployed
  3. Replace their commercial configuration management tool with a different solution
  4. Increase the frequency of software updates for the drone control systems

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth
CM.L2-3.4.1 requires "establishing and documenting baseline configurations, reviewed and updated as needed." The lack of firmware/network inclusion and a review process fails objective [c]. A documented review process addressing all components and security risks (A) directly corrects this, aligning with CMMC intent. Ad-hoc updates (B) lack structure, tool replacement (C) isn't justified, and update frequency (D) is unrelated. The guide emphasizes periodic review.
Extract from Official CMMC Documentation:
CMMC Assessment Guide Level 2 (v2.0), CM.L2-3.4.1: "Review and update baselines for all components as needed."
NIST SP 800-171A, 3.4.1: "Examine process for baseline updates."


Reference:

https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/CMMC/AG_Level2_MasterV2.0_FINAL_202112016_508.pdf



You have been sent to assess an OSC's implementation of CMMC practices, one of which is AC.L2-

3.1.11 ­ Session Termination. You expect to find the following items when examining the contractor's list of conditions or trigger events requiring session termination, EXCEPT?

  1. Time-of-day restrictions on system use
  2. Organization-defined periods of user inactivity
  3. Pre-approved user activity for specific functionalities
  4. Targeted responses to certain types of incidents

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth

AC.L2-3.1.11 requires organizations to "terminate (automatically) a user session after a defined condition." The intent is to protect systems by ending sessions based on specific trigger events that indicate potential security risks or operational policies. Conditions like time-of-day restrictions, periods of inactivity, and responses to incidents (e.g., detected malicious activity) align with this intent, as they are objective triggers for session termination. However, "pre-approved user activity for specific functionalities" does not fit, as it implies authorized actions that should not trigger termination--contradicting the practice's focus on ending sessions under defined risk conditions. The CMMC Assessment Guide lists examples of termination triggers, none of which include approved user activities as a reason to terminate.
Extract from Official CMMC Documentation:
CMMC Assessment Guide Level 2 (v2.0), AC.L2-3.1.11: "Examples of conditions or trigger events include organization-defined periods of inactivity, targeted responses to certain types of incidents, or time-of-day restrictions on system use."
NIST SP 800-171A, 3.1.11: "Examine documentation for conditions or trigger events requiring session disconnect, such as inactivity or incident responses."


Reference:

https://dodcio.defense.gov/Portals/0/Documents/CMMC/AG_Level2_MasterV2.0_FINAL_202112016_508.pdf



Share your comments for Cyber AB CMMC-CCA exam with other users:

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

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J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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D
David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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T
Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

K
khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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K
Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

E
Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

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V
vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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M
Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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