CWNP Certified Wireless Analysis Professional CWAP-405 Dumps in PDF

Free CWNP CWAP-405 Real Questions (page: 3)

After performing a protocol analysis capture on channel 36 you are looking at the radio tap header of a data frame and notice the frame was transmitted at MCS 0 on one spatial stream. At what data rate was the PHY Header for this frame transmitted?

  1. 1 Mbps
  2. 2 Mbps
  3. 6 Mbps
  4. 6.5 Mbps

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

On channel 36 (5 GHz band), the PHY header is always transmitted using one of the basic OFDM rates to ensure all devices can decode it. For 802.11a/n/ac in 5 GHz, the PHY header is sent at 6 Mbps, regardless of the MCS rate used for the data portion of the frame.



What is used in the PHY header of 802.11ax transmissions to identify stations that are included in an OFDMA RU-based multi-user transmission?

  1. Station ID
  2. Station MAC address
  3. Station IP address
  4. Station TCP port

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6), the PHY header includes a Station ID (STA-ID) to identify which stations are assigned to specific Resource Units (RUs) during OFDMA multi-user transmissions. This allows multiple clients to be scheduled and coordinated efficiently at the PHY layer.



To what does the channel number displayed in the radio tap header refer?

  1. Channel the frame was transmitted on
  2. Channel the frame was captured on
  3. The channel of the AP to which the protocol analyzer is associated
  4. The channel reported in the channel field of the PHY header

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

The channel number shown in the radio tap header reflects the channel setting of the capture adapter at the time the frame was received. It indicates where the analyzer was listening, not necessarily the channel declared in the PHY header or used by the transmitting AP.



When the Protected bit in the Frame Control field of the MAC header is set to 0, it always indicates:

  1. This is an RSN
  2. Encryption is not enabled for the entire BSS
  3. The frame body is unencrypted
  4. The AP is not operating in FIPS mode

Answer(s): C

Explanation:

The Protected Frame bit in the Frame Control field indicates whether the frame body is encrypted. A value of 0 means the frame body is unencrypted, while a value of 1 means it is encrypted.



You are exploring the packet decode of an 802.11 data frame and notice the To DS and From DS bits of the Frame Control field are both set to 1. Assuming the frame does not have a CRC error, what can you conclude about this frame?

  1. The frame is a retransmission.
  2. The frame has been transmitted on an Ad-Hoc network.
  3. This is non-standard 802.11 behavior and this frame must be part of the proprietary feature.
  4. The frame was transmitted between two WLAN infrastructure devices such as WLAN bridges or Mesh APs.

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

When both To DS and From DS bits are set to 1, it indicates a wireless distribution system (WDS) frame. These are used when frames are forwarded between infrastructure devices like APs in a mesh network or wireless bridge, not between clients and APs.



Which is not a valid interpretation for one of the 4 address fields in the MAC header?

  1. Source address
  2. Receiver address
  3. Transmitter address
  4. Sender address

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

The 802.11 MAC header can contain up to four addresses: source address (SA), transmitter address (TA), receiver address (RA), and destination address (DA). "Sender address" is not a defined field in the standard, making it invalid.



In an infrastructure network, which statement is true concerning the “Power Management” bit and “More Data” bit in the Frame Control field of the MAC header?

  1. The “Power Management” bit should only be set by a client STA and the “More Data” bit should only be set by the AP.
  2. The “Power Management” bit should only be set by the AP and the “More Data” bit should only be set by a client STA.
  3. The “Power Management” bit and the “More Data” bit should only be set by the AP.
  4. The “Power Management” bit and the “More Data” bit should only be set by a client STA.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

In an infrastructure WLAN, the client STA sets the Power Management bit to signal when it is entering or exiting power save mode. The AP sets the More Data bit to indicate that additional buffered frames are waiting for a client STA, allowing proper coordination of frame delivery.



Which one of the following protocol analyzer features do not make protocol trace files easier to read?

  1. Filtering
  2. Colorization
  3. Naming nodes
  4. Packet slicing

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

Packet slicing reduces the captured frame size to protect sensitive data but does not improve readability of the trace. Features like filtering, colorization, and naming nodes directly help analysts focus on relevant frames and understand communication patterns more easily.



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AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

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AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

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Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

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Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

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Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

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srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

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onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

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Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

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Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

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Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

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LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

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Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

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Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

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Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

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NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

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Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

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Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

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shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

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Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

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Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

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David
10/31/2025 4:06:16 PM

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Thor
10/21/2025 5:16:29 AM

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Vladimir
9/25/2025 9:11:14 AM

173 question is A not D

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khaos
9/21/2025 7:07:26 AM

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Katiso Lehasa
9/15/2025 11:21:52 PM

Thanks for the practice questions they helped me a lot.

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Einstein
9/2/2025 7:42:00 PM

Passed this exam today. All questions are valid and this is not something you can find in ChatGPT.

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vito
8/22/2025 4:16:51 AM

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Matt
7/31/2025 11:44:40 PM

Great questions.

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OLERATO
7/1/2025 5:44:14 AM

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