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Cisco Supporting Devices for Field Technicians 800-150 Dumps in PDF

Free Cisco 800-150 Real Questions (page: 11)

800-150 PDF — 100 Questions

DRAG DROP (Drag and Drop is not supported)
[Device Configuration and Verification]

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the corresponding IPv4 addressing modes on the right.

  1. See Explanation for the Answer.

Answer(s): A

Explanation:



This content is aligned with IPv4 Addressing Fundamentals, detailed in the FLDTEC course under Device Configuration and Verification:
Unicast: A unicast address uniquely identifies a single host on a network. This is the most common address type used for standard communication between two devices. Broadcast: Broadcast addresses (e.g., 255.255.255.255 or subnet-specific broadcast) send traffic to all hosts in the network segment. Used for ARP requests and DHCP discovery. Multicast: Used to deliver a packet to a group of hosts interested in the data, without flooding the network like a broadcast. Multicast uses addresses from the range 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255. Loopback: The loopback address (127.0.0.1) is reserved for local testing, ensuring that the TCP/IP stack is working properly without needing to access the network.



[Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware]



Refer to the exhibit.
What are two ways remote sites or branches connect to the enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)

  1. Access layer switches
  2. WAN links
  3. IPsec VPN tunnels
  4. Ad hoc Wi-Fi network
  5. LAN core switches

Answer(s): B,C

Explanation:

In enterprise networking, remote sites or branch offices connect to the central campus network using:
WAN Links: These are dedicated communication paths that connect geographically dispersed networks. WAN links can be leased lines, MPLS circuits, or other forms of long-distance connectivity that facilitate reliable data transmission between remote sites and the main campus. IPsec VPN Tunnels: Internet Protocol Security (IPsec) VPNs provide secure, encrypted tunnels over the public internet, allowing remote sites to connect to the enterprise network securely. This method is cost-effective and widely used for connecting branch offices to the central network infrastructure. Access layer switches (Option A) and LAN core switches (Option E) are components within a local network and do not facilitate remote connectivity. Ad hoc Wi-Fi networks (Option D) are temporary and lack the security and reliability required for enterprise-level remote connections.


Reference:

Supporting Cisco Devices for Field Technicians (FLDTEC) ­ Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware



[Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware]
When should a crossover UTP cable be used instead of a straight-through cable when connecting network devices?

  1. To connect electrically like devices
  2. To connect a PC to a wireless access point
  3. To connect a switch to a router
  4. To connect electrically unlike devices

Answer(s): A

Explanation:

A crossover UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) cable is used to connect two similar devices directly. This includes:
Switch to switch
Router to router

PC to PC
The crossover cable reverses the transmit and receive pairs, allowing for proper communication between like devices without the need for an intermediary device. Conversely, a straight-through cable is used to connect dissimilar devices, such as:
PC to switch
Router to switch
PC to router
This cable maintains the same wiring on both ends, suitable for connecting different types of devices. Therefore, when connecting electrically like devices, a crossover cable is appropriate.


Reference:

Supporting Cisco Devices for Field Technicians (FLDTEC) ­ Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware



[Cisco IOS Software Basics]
How many bits are borrowed from the default host portion of the address to create subnets in a Class B network with a subnet mask 255.255.255.0?

  1. 3 bits
  2. 5 bits
  3. 3 bits
  4. 8 bits

Answer(s): D

Explanation:

In a Class B network, the default subnet mask is 255.255.0.0, which allocates:
16 bits for the network portion
16 bits for the host portion
When the subnet mask is changed to 255.255.255.0, it becomes:
24 bits for the network portion
8 bits for the host portion
This indicates that 8 bits have been borrowed from the host portion to create additional subnets. Borrowing bits allows for the division of the original network into smaller sub-networks, enhancing organization and security within the network.


Reference:

Supporting Cisco Devices for Field Technicians (FLDTEC) ­ Cisco IOS Software Basics



[Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware]
What is the function of an access layer device?

  1. Provides high-speed data transport between buildings or different parts of the campus
  2. Serves as the entry point for end-user devices to connect to the network
  3. Provides secure external access to internal network components
  4. Connects remote offices to the main corporate network

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

In the hierarchical network design model, the access layer is the first layer and serves as the entry point for end-user devices to connect to the network. This layer connects user devices such as PCs, IP phones, wireless access points, printers, and scanners to the network. It facilitates the initial connection between end-user devices and the network infrastructure. The access layer also enforces security policies and provides services such as VLAN membership, port security, and Quality of Service (QoS).
Options A, C, and D refer to functions typically associated with the core or distribution layers, or with WAN connectivity, rather than the access layer.


Reference:

Supporting Cisco Devices for Field Technicians (FLDTEC) ­ Cisco Equipment and Related Hardware



[Wireless Device Support]
Which term describes the physical range of radio frequency coverage provided by an access point in a wireless topology?

  1. Service Set Identifier (SSID)
  2. Basic Service Area (BSA)
  3. Wireless LAN (WLAN)
  4. Wireless LAN Controller (WLC)

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

In wireless networking, the Basic Service Area (BSA) refers to the physical area of radio frequency coverage provided by an access point (AP) in a Basic Service Set (BSS). The BSA defines the coverage area where wireless clients can connect to the network through the AP. The size and shape of a BSA depend on various factors, including the AP's transmit power, antenna type, and physical environment.
Option A, the Service Set Identifier (SSID), is the network name broadcast by the AP. Option C, Wireless LAN (WLAN), refers to the overall wireless network. Option D, Wireless LAN Controller (WLC), is a device that manages multiple APs in a network.


Reference:

Supporting Cisco Devices for Field Technicians (FLDTEC) ­ Wireless Device Support



[Device Configuration and Verification]

Which two configuration parameters are most critical to ensure optimal performance when configuring a network port for a newly installed IP phone in an enterprise environment? (Choose two.)

  1. VLAN assignment
  2. Link aggregation
  3. Spanning Tree Protocol
  4. Power over Ethernet
  5. QoS classification

Answer(s): A,D

Explanation:

When configuring a network port for a newly installed IP phone, two critical parameters to ensure optimal performance are:
VLAN Assignment: Assigning the correct VLANs is essential for segregating voice and data traffic. Typically, a separate voice VLAN is configured to prioritize voice traffic and enhance security. Power over Ethernet (PoE): PoE allows the switch to supply power to the IP phone over the same Ethernet cable used for data transmission. This eliminates the need for separate power supplies and simplifies installation.
While QoS classification (Option E) is important for prioritizing voice traffic, it is typically configured at a broader network level. Link aggregation (Option B) and Spanning Tree Protocol (Option C) are more relevant to network redundancy and loop prevention, respectively, and are not directly critical for the initial configuration of an IP phone port.


Reference:

Supporting Cisco Devices for Field Technicians (FLDTEC) ­ Device Configuration and Verification



Which deployment scenarios are Cisco 8000 Series routers primarily designed for?

  1. remote branch offices and retail locations
  2. service provider and web-scale networks
  3. small business and home office networks
  4. campus LAN access and distribution layers

Answer(s): B

Explanation:

Cisco 8000 Series routers are primarily designed for service provider and web-scale networks, offering high-performance routing capabilities to handle large-scale, high-bandwidth environments typically found in service provider infrastructures and data centers.



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A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/7/2026 11:34:48 PM

As an administrator for this subscription, you have been tasked with recommending a solution that prohibits users from copying corporate information from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. Which of the following should you recommend? Windows Virtual Desktop. Microsoft Intune. Windows AutoPilot. Azure AD Application Proxy.

  • Microsoft Intune

Reason: Intune can enforce app protection policies (MAM) on managed apps, even on unmanaged devices, to prevent data leakage (e.g., restricting copy/paste, saving to non-approved apps, etc.). The other options don’t address data protection within apps on unmanaged devices.

Oslo, Norway
A
AI Tutor Explanation
5/4/2026 2:43:10 AM

Question 34:

  • Question 34 asks: Which role(s) has the capability to create Policies? Choose two.
  • Likely correct roles: Compliance Manager and Compliance admin (A and B). These roles typically have policy governance rights to create and manage policies.
  • Why not the others: Compliance User is usually a limited user, not allowed to create policies. Risk Manager focuses on risks, not policy creation in standard setups.
  • Note on the provided key: The answer shown is “C” (Compliance User), which conflicts with “Choose two.” This is probably a key error. In practice, verify against your instance’s ACLs or official docs.
  • Quick check tip: In ServiceNow, review the ACLs and role permissions for the Policy records to see which roles can create policies.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 11:59:58 PM

function of appnav in sdwan

  • AppNav (Application Navigation) is the Cisco SD-WAN feature that provides application-level visibility and control.
  • It maintains a catalog of applications (AppIDs) with attributes (ports/protocols, categories) and classifies traffic accordingly.
  • It allows policy authors to reference apps by name in policies, enabling application-aware routing, QoS, and service chaining based on the app’s requirements.
  • The SD-WAN fabric uses AppNav data to steer traffic along the best path, improving user experience for critical apps while optimizing WAN usage.

Sydney, Australia
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:25:25 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:23:14 AM

Question 5:

  • Correct answer: A. User4 and User1 only

  • Why this is correct:
- The Automatic Enrollment setting in Intune has MDM user scope: GroupA. Only users in GroupA can enroll devices via MDM auto-enrollment. - Device6 will be enrolled via Windows Autopilot and Intune, so enrollment is allowed only for users in GroupA. - Based on the group memberships in the scenario, User4 and User1 are in GroupA, while User2 and User3 are not. Therefore only User4 and User1 can enroll Device6.
  • Quick tip for the exam:
- Remember: MDM user scope determines who can auto-enroll devices; MAM scope controls app protection enrollment. When a new Autopilot device is enrolled, the signing-in user must be in the MDM scope.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/29/2026 5:17:10 AM

Why this is correct

  • Correct answer: C. Extract the hardware ID information of each computer to a CSV file and upload the file from the Microsoft Intune admin center.

  • Why this is correct:
- Windows Autopilot requires devices to be registered by their hardware IDs (hash) before Autopilot can deploy Windows 10 Enterprise. - Collect the hardware IDs from the new Phoenix machines, save them in a CSV, and upload that CSV in the Intune/Windows Autopilot area. This maps each device to an Autopilot deployment profile. - After registration, you can assign Autopilot profiles (Windows 10 Enterprise, etc.). Other options (serial number CSV, generalizing, or Mobility settings) are not the initial Autopilot registration steps.

Durban, South Africa
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:53:46 PM

Question 7:

  • Correct answer: B — A risk score is computed based on the number of remediations needed compared to the industry peer average.

Explanation:
  • Risk360 uses a remediation-based score. It benchmarks how many actions are required to fix issues against peers, giving a relative risk posture.
  • Why not the others:
- A: Not just total risk events by location. - C: Time to mitigate isn’t the primary scoring method. - D: Not a four-stage breach scoring approach.
Note: The page text shows a mismatch (it lists D as the answer), but the study guide describes the remediation-based scoring (B) as the correct concept.

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/25/2026 1:42:20 PM

Question 104:

  • Correct answer: D) Multi-Terabyte (TB) Range

  • Brief explanation:
- clustering keys organize data into micro-partitions to improve pruning when queries filter on those columns. - The performance benefit is most significant for very large tables; for small tables the overhead of maintaining clustering outweighs gains. - Therefore, as a best practice, define clustering keys on tables at the TB scale.

Thane, India
C
Community Helper
4/25/2026 2:03:10 AM

Q23: Fabric Admin is correct. Because Domain admin cannot create domains. Only Fabric Admin can among the given options. Q51: Wrapping @pipeline.parameter.param1 inside {} will return a string. But question requires the expression to return Int, so correct answer should be @pipeline.parameter.param1 (no {})

New Delhi, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 3:07:03 PM

Question 62:

  • Correct answer: D (per the page)

  • Note: The explanation text on the page describes option B (use ZDX score and Analyze Score to trigger the Y Engine analysis), indicating a mismatch between the stated answer and the rationale.

  • Key concept: For fast root-cause analysis, leverage telemetry and auto-correlated insights:
- Use the user’s ZDX score for AWS and run Analyze Score to activate the Y Engine, which correlates metrics across network, client, and application to pinpoint the issue quickly.
  • Why the other options are less effective:
- A: Only checks for outages; doesn’t provide actionable root-cause analysis. - C: Deep Trace helps visibility but is manual and time-consuming. - D: Packet capture is invasive and slow; not the quickest path to root cause.

Coimbatore, India
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/23/2026 12:26:21 PM

Question 32:

  • Answer: A (2.4GHz)

  • Why: Lower-frequency signals have longer wavelengths and experience less attenuation when passing through walls and obstacles. Higher frequencies (5GHz, 6GHz) are more easily blocked by walls. NFC operates over very short distances and is not meant to penetrate walls. So 2.4 GHz best penetrates physical objects like walls.

Allen, United States
A
AI Tutor Explanation
4/21/2026 8:48:36 AM

Question 3:

  • False is the correct answer (Option B).

Why:
  • In Snowflake, a database is a metadata object that exists within a single Snowflake account. Accounts are isolated—there isn’t one database that lives in multiple accounts.
  • You can access data across accounts via data sharing or database replication, but these create separate database objects in the other accounts (e.g., a database in the consumer account created from a share), not a single shared database across accounts.

So a single database cannot exist in more than one Snowflake account.

Thane, India
A
Anonymous User
4/16/2026 10:54:18 AM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: E — date = sys.argv[1]
  • Why this is correct:
- When a Databricks Job passes parameters to a notebook, those parameters are supplied to the notebook's Python process as command-line arguments. The first argument after the script name is sys.argv[1], so date = sys.argv[1] captures the passed date value directly.
  • How it compares to other options:
- date = spark.conf.get("date") reads from Spark config, not from job parameters. - input() waits for user input at runtime, which isn’t how job parameters are provided. - date = dbutils.notebooks.getParam("date") would work if the notebook were invoked via dbutils.notebook.run with parameters, not

Innisfil, Canada
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 4:42:07 AM

Question 528:

  • Correct answer: NSG flow logs for NSG1 (Option B)

  • Why:
- Traffic Analytics uses NSG flow logs to analyze traffic patterns. You must have NSG flow logs enabled for the NSGs you want to monitor. - An Azure Log Analytics workspace is also required to store and query the traffic data. - Network Watcher must be available in the subscription for traffic analytics to function.
  • What to configure (brief steps):
- Ensure Network Watcher is enabled in the East US region (for the subscription/region). - Enable NSG flow logs on NSG1. - Ensure a Log Analytics workspace exists and is accessible (read/write) so Traffic Analytics can store and query logs.
  • Why other options aren’t correct:
- “Diagnostic settings for VM1” or “Diagnostic settings for NSG1” alone don’t guarantee flow logs are captured and sent to Log Analytics, which Traffic Analytics relies on. - “Insights for VM1” is not how Traffic Analytics collects traffic data.

Hamburg, Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/15/2026 2:43:53 AM

Question 23:
The correct answer is Domain admin (option B), not Fabric admin.

  • Domain admin provides domain-level management: create domains/subdomains and assign workspaces within those domains, which matches the tasks while following least privilege.
  • Fabric admin is global-level access and is more privileges than needed for this scenario (it would grant broader control across the Fabric environment).

Kottayam, India
A
Anonymous User
4/14/2026 12:31:34 PM

Question 2:
For question 2, the key concept is the Longest Prefix Match. Routers pick the route whose subnet mask is the most specific (largest prefix length) that still matches the destination IP.
From the options:

  • A) 10.10.10.0/28 ? 10.10.10.0–10.10.10.15
  • B) 10.10.13.0/25 ? 10.10.13.0–10.10.13.127
  • C) 10.10.13.144/28 ? 10.10.13.144–10.10.13.159
  • D) 10.10.13.208/29 ? 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215

The destination Host A’s IP must fall within 10.10.13.208–10.10.13.215 for the /29 to be the best match. Since /29 is the longest prefix among the matching options, Router1 will use 10.10.13.208/29.
Thus, the correct answer is D.

Canada
S
srameh
4/14/2026 10:09:29 AM

Question 3:

  • Correct answer: Phase 4, Post Accreditation

  • Explanation:
- In DITSCAP, the four phases are: - Phase 1: Definition (concept and requirements) - Phase 2: Verification (design and testing) - Phase 3: Validation (fielding and evaluation) - Phase 4: Post Accreditation (ongoing operations and lifecycle management) - The description—continuing operation of an accredited IT system and addressing changing threats throughout its life cycle—fits the Post Accreditation phase, which covers operations, maintenance, monitoring, and reauthorization as threats and environment evolve.

France
O
onibokun10
4/13/2026 7:50:14 PM

Question 129:
Correct answer: CNAME

  • A CNAME record creates an alias for a domain, so newapplication.comptia.org will resolve to whatever IP address www.comptia.org resolves to. This ensures both names point to the same resource without duplicating the IP.
  • Why not the others:
- SOA defines authoritative information for a zone. - MX specifies mail exchange servers. - NS designates name servers for a zone.
  • Notes: The alias name (newapplication.comptia.org) should not have other records if you use a CNAME for it, and CNAMEs aren’t used for the zone apex (root) domain. This scenario uses a subdomain, so a CNAME is appropriate.

Swindon, United Kingdom
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 6:29:58 PM

Question 1:

  • Correct answer: C

  • Why this is best:
- Uses OS Login with IAM, so SSH access is granted via Google accounts rather than distributing per-user SSH keys. - Granting the compute.osAdminLogin role to a Google group gives admin access to all team members in a centralized, auditable way. - Access is auditable: Cloud Audit Logs show who accessed which VM, satisfying the security requirement to determine who accessed a given instance.
  • How it works:
- Enable OS Login on the project/instances (enable-oslogin metadata). - Add the team’s

Germany
A
Anonymous User
4/13/2026 1:00:51 PM

Question 2:

  • Answer: D. Azure Advisor

  • Why: To view security-related recommendations for resources in the Compute and Apps area (including App Service Web Apps and Functions), you use Azure Advisor. Advisor surfaces personalized best-practice recommendations across resources, including security, and shows which resources are affected and the severity.

  • Why not the others:
- Azure Log Analytics is for ad-hoc querying of telemetry, not for viewing security recommendations. - Azure Event Hubs is for streaming telemetry data, not for security recommendations.
  • Quick tip: In the portal, navigate to Azure Advisor and check the Security recommendations for App Services to see actionable items and affe

    Brazil
D
Don
4/11/2026 5:36:42 AM

Recommend using AI for Solutions rather the Answer(s) submitted here

Hamburg, Germany
M
Mogae Malapela
4/8/2026 6:37:56 AM

This is very interesting

Gaborone, Botswana
A
Anon
4/6/2026 5:22:54 PM

Are these the same questions you have to pay for in ExamTopics?

Amsterdam, The Netherlands
L
LRK
3/22/2026 2:38:08 PM

For Question 7 - while the answer description indicates the correct answer, the option no. mentioned is incorrect. Nice and Comprehensive. Thankyou

Paris, France
R
Rian
3/19/2026 9:12:10 AM

This is very good and accurate. Explanation is very helpful even thou some are not 100% right but good enough to pass.

United States
G
Gerrard
3/18/2026 6:58:37 AM

The DP-900 exam can be tricky if you aren't familiar with Microsoft’s specific cloud terminology. I used the practice questions from free-braindumps.com and found them incredibly helpful. The site breaks down core data concepts and Azure services in a way that actually mirrors the real test. As a resutl I passed my exam.

United States
V
Vineet Kumar
3/6/2026 5:26:16 AM

interesting

Anonymous
J
Joe
1/20/2026 8:25:24 AM

Passed this exam 2 days ago. These questions are in the exam. You are safe to use them.

UNITED STATES
N
NJ
12/24/2025 10:39:07 AM

Helpful to test your preparedness before giving exam

Anonymous
A
Ashwini
12/17/2025 8:24:45 AM

Really helped

Anonymous
J
Jagadesh
12/16/2025 9:57:10 AM

Good explanation

INDIA
S
shobha
11/29/2025 2:19:59 AM

very helpful

INDIA
P
Pandithurai
11/12/2025 12:16:21 PM

Question 1, Ans is - Developer,Standard,Professional Direct and Premier

Anonymous
E
Einstein
11/8/2025 4:13:37 AM

Passed this exam in first appointment. Great resource and valid exam dump.

Anonymous
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